A
Augustine3
Guest
Besides the differences in Protestant theology and the apocrypha books, what are the reasons why the protestants do not use the Septuagint?
It’s simply not true that Protestants do not use the Septuagint. I have used it for investigative word study (I have no competency in Hebrew but did study some Greek). Some Protestant bibles include footnotes indicating that the Septuagint says this but the Hebrew (Masoretic Text) says something different. I think the ESV and NIV both do this.Besides the differences in Protestant theology and the apocrypha books, what are the reasons why the protestants do not use the Septuagint?
I don’t think they exactly reject it… most Protestants probably don’t even know it exists.Besides the differences in Protestant theology and the apocrypha books, what are the reasons why the protestants do not use the Septuagint?
I know that you probably don’t mean to be confrontational; however, the correct term is deuterocanonical. But that aside, Protestant Bibles are based on the Hebrew Canon because Luther felt that excluding the deuterocanonical books better supported his beliefs. The Catholic Church has used the LXX (aka - Spetuagint or Greek Canon) since the Councils of Hippo (393 AD) and Carthage (397 AD). Then, in the 16th century, Luther, reacting to serious abuses and clerical corruption in the Catholic Church, and to his own heretical theological vision (sola scriptura and sola fide), and, frankly, to his own inner demons, removed those books from the canon that lent support to orthodox doctrine, relegating them to an appendix. Removed in this way were books that supported such things as prayers for the dead (Tobit 12:12; 2 Maccabees 12:39-45), Purgatory (Wisdom 3:1-7), intercession of dead saints (2 Maccabees 15:14), and intercession of angels as intermediaries (Tobit 12:12-15). Ultimately, the “Reformers” decided to ignore the canon determined by the Christian Councils of Hippo and Carthage (and reaffirmed and closed at the Council of Trent).Besides the differences in Protestant theology and the apocrypha books, what are the reasons why the protestants do not use the Septuagint?
Catholics do not use all the books in the LXX. The Orthodox use more of the books of the LXX than the Catholics. The Catholic church defined what books Catholics should use in the canon at Trent…not for other Christian bodies.I know that you probably don’t mean to be confrontational; however, the correct term is deuterocanonical. But that aside, Protestant Bibles are based on the Hebrew Canon because Luther felt that excluding the deuterocanonical books better supported his beliefs. The Catholic Church has used the LXX (aka - Spetuagint or Greek Canon) since the Councils of Hippo (393 AD) and Carthage (397 AD). Then, in the 16th century, Luther, reacting to serious abuses and clerical corruption in the Catholic Church, and to his own heretical theological vision (sola scriptura and sola fide), and, frankly, to his own inner demons, removed those books from the canon that lent support to orthodox doctrine, relegating them to an appendix. Removed in this way were books that supported such things as prayers for the dead (Tobit 12:12; 2 Maccabees 12:39-45), Purgatory (Wisdom 3:1-7), intercession of dead saints (2 Maccabees 15:14), and intercession of angels as intermediaries (Tobit 12:12-15). Ultimately, the “Reformers” decided to ignore the canon determined by the Christian Councils of Hippo and Carthage (and reaffirmed and closed at the Council of Trent).
You are mistaken, respectfully. The canon was laid out at Hippo and Carthage and later (because of the Reformation) reaffirmed at Trent. Please don’t assume that prior to Trent the Catholic Church had no canon. Also, I agree that the Catholic Church was not defining what the canon was for “other Christian bodies.” There was only the Catholic Church during Hippo and Carthage, so this wasn’t an issue.Catholics do not use all the books in the LXX. The Orthodox use more of the books of the LXX than the Catholics. The Catholic church defined what books Catholics should use in the canon at Trent…not for other Christian bodies.
True. One site says, “Books and fragments that are canonical for the Orthodox but not for Roman Catholics: 1 Esdras, 3 Maccabees, Psalm 151, and the Prayer of Manasseh. In addition, the apocalyptic 2 Esdras (perhaps more happily termed 3 Esdras – see Footnote 2 above) is included in Slavonic Bibles.” mysite.verizon.net/rgjones3/Septuagint/sp_books.htmlCatholics do not use all the books in the LXX. The Orthodox use more of the books of the LXX than the Catholics.
Anglicans make use of many books not generally recognized by some Protestants, including some readings from them in the “Table of Lessons for the Christian Year,” the daily Bible reading guide found in the Book of Common Prayer.Besides the differences in Protestant theology and the apocrypha books, what are the reasons why the protestants do not use the Septuagint?
I didn’t ‘assume’…I stated that the Catholic church didn’t set the canon for other Christian bodies. The Orthodox, Coptic, Ethiopian traditions would disagree with your that “there was only the Catholic church” during Hippo and Carthage.You are mistaken, respectfully. The canon was laid out at Hippo and Carthage and later (because of the Reformation) reaffirmed at Trent. Please don’t assume that prior to Trent the Catholic Church had no canon. Also, I agree that the Catholic Church was not defining what the canon was for “other Christian bodies.” There was only the Catholic Church during Hippo and Carthage, so this wasn’t an issue.
Careful… Luther’s bible had all the same books that a modern Catholic bible does. The removal of several book in the English speaking Protestant world has more to do with the English Bible Societies than anything else.Protestant Bibles are based on the Hebrew Canon because Luther felt that excluding the deuterocanonical books better supported his beliefs.
Facts and details friend, facts and details, no one wants to know the facts…it’s much better to claim “Luther removed books” or “Protestants removed books that supported Catholic doctrine” than to just stay with the facts. Facts get in the way.Careful… Luther’s bible had all the same books that a modern Catholic bible does. The removal of several book in the English speaking Protestant world has more to do with the English Bible Societies than anything else.
Source, please. Specifically, where does he say this? And, why did he (and the others), therefore, translate and include them?=Tietjen;10077967]I know that you probably don’t mean to be confrontational; however, the correct term is deuterocanonical. But that aside, Protestant Bibles are based on the Hebrew Canon because** Luther felt that excluding the deuterocanonical books better supported his beliefs**.
Luther nor Lutherans oppose prayer for the dead. Luther’s main complaint about Purgatory is not purgation, which Lutherans affirm, but with the indulgences and private masses thrat grew up around the state/place belief. Additionally, why does Orthodoxy oppose the doctrine of Purgatory?The Catholic Church has used the LXX (aka - Spetuagint or Greek Canon) since the Councils of Hippo (393 AD) and Carthage (397 AD). Then, in the 16th century, Luther, reacting to serious abuses and clerical corruption in the Catholic Church, and to his own heretical theological vision (sola scriptura and sola fide), and, frankly, to his own inner demons, removed those books from the canon that lent support to orthodox doctrine, relegating them to an appendix. Removed in this way were books that supported such things as prayers for the dead (Tobit 12:12; 2 Maccabees 12:39-45), Purgatory (Wisdom 3:1-7), intercession of dead saints (2 Maccabees 15:14), and intercession of angels as intermediaries (Tobit 12:12-15).
Why did Orthodoxy not accept the canons from these local synods?Ultimately, the “Reformers” decided to ignore the canon determined by the Christian Councils of Hippo and Carthage (and reaffirmed and closed at the Council of Trent).
The Catholic Church utilizes neither the text nor the canon of the Septuagint; the Latinate Church never has. However, the Greek Orthodox Church does use both. (I’d also be curious where you are getting your information.)Besides the differences in Protestant theology and the apocrypha books, what are the reasons why the protestants do not use the Septuagint?
Don’t worry friend, I do not “assume”…the western chruch indeed did NOT use all the books of the LXX…the 'undivided chruch" prior to the Schism did not have a defined set of books in the canon…the “undivided church” did not agree on any set number of books…Trent decided what books were binding on Catholics as scripture…the Orthodox took no notice…neither did the Copts nor the Ethiopian church nor the Slavonic church it would seem.You are mistaken, respectfully. The canon was laid out at Hippo and Carthage and later (because of the Reformation) reaffirmed at Trent. Please don’t assume that prior to Trent the Catholic Church had no canon. Also, I agree that the Catholic Church was not defining what the canon was for “other Christian bodies.” There was only the Catholic Church during Hippo and Carthage, so this wasn’t an issue.
You’ve got THAT right. With a Protestant at Mass one time when a reading from the book of Wisdom was announced. She had no idea her Bible had fewer books. I had no idea mine had more books. Quite a shock that day. Nothing’s been the same sinceI don’t think they exactly reject it… most Protestants probably don’t even know it exists.
I love this. Adamski, if it’s okay with you, I cut and pasted this in a word document I keep to help me learn the Faith better. I’m always finding stuff that I find fascinating. Thank you for posting this. Had a debate about this last weekend!Martin Luther said one reason was because he couldn’t find any original copies in Greek and only in Latin.
But that was disputed with the finding of the book of Tobit in the dead sea scrolls
Another reason was there was no copies bound in a bible before the Latin vulgate of Jerome in the mid 300’s
In 1846 the codex sinacattuis was discovered from the early 300’s blind with 73 books
A third reason is Jerome himself said he was unsure if they belonged but came to a consenses later
Fourth they say they aren’t quoted in the new testament with which is totally false
Matthew 2:16. Herod’s decree of slaying innocent children was prophesied in Wisdom 11:7–slaying the holy innocents.
Mt 6:19-20. Jesus’ statement about laying up treasure in heaven follows Sirach 29:11–lay up your treasure. [My Note: Lay up your treasure according to the commandments of the Most High, and it will profit you more than gold.]
Mt 7:12. Jesus’ Golden Rule: “Do unto others…” is the converse of Tobit 4:15-- what you hate, do not do to others.
Mt 7:16, 20. Jesus’ statement, “You will know them by their fruits” follows Sirach 27:6–the fruit discloses the cultivation.
Mt. 9:36. The people were “like sheep without a shepherd” is the same as Judith 11:19–sheep without a shepherd.
Mt. 11:25. Jesus’ description, "Lord of heaven and earth is the same as Tobit 7:18–Lord of heaven and earth. [see above]*
Mt. 12:42. Jesus refers to the wisdom of Solomon, which was recorded and made part of the Deuterocanonical books. [My note: Mt 12:42 Jesus speaks: “The queen of the South will rise at the judgment with this generation and condemn it for she came from the ends of the earth to hear the wisdom of Solomon, and behold, something greater than Solomon is here.”]
Mt 16:18. Jesus’ reference to the “power of death” and “gates of Hades” references Wisdom 16:13. [My note: “For thou hast power over life and death; thou dost lead man down to the gates of Hades and back again.”]
Mt. 22:25; Md 12:20; Lk 20:29. The Evangelists refer to the canonicity of Tobit 3:8 and 7:11, regarding the seven brothers.
Mt 24:15. The ‘desolating sacrilege’ jesus refers to is taken from 1 Mac 1:54 and 2 Mac 8: 17.
Mt. 27:43. If He is God’s Son, let God deliver him from His adversaries follows Wis 2:18.
Mk 4:5, 16-17. Jesus’ description of seeds falling on rocky ground and having no root follows Sirach 40:15. “The children of the ungodly will not put forth many branches; they are unhealthy roots among sheer rock.”]
Mk 9:48. Jesus’ description of hell, where “worm does not die and the fire is not quenched,” references Judith 16:17. [Woe to the nations that rise up against my people! The Lord Almighty will take vengeance on them in the day of judgment; fire and worms he will give to their flesh; they shall weep in pain forever.]*
Lk1:42. Elizabeth’s declaration of Mary’s blessedness follows Uzziah’s declaration in Judith 13:18.
Lk 1:52. Mary’s Magnificat addressing “the mighty falling from their thrones” and replaced by the “lowly” follows Sirach 10:14.
Lk 2:29. Simeon’s declaration that he is ready to die after seeing the Child Jesus follows Tobit 11:9
Lk 13:29. The Lord’s description of men coming from the east and west to rejoice in God follows Baruch 4:37. “Behold your sons are coming, whom you sent away; they are coming, gathered from east and west.”]
Lk 21:24. Jesus’ words “fall by the edge of the sword” follows Sirach 28:18.
“Many have fallen by the edge of the sword, but not so many as have fallen because of the tongue] Lk 24:4 and Acts 1:10. Luke’s description of the two men in dazzling apparel reminds us of 2 Macc 3:26. continuing:
John 5:18. Jesus claiming that God is His Father follows Wisdom 2:16.
John 6:35-59. Jesus’ Eucharistic discourse is foreshadowed in Sirach 24:20
John 10:22. The identification of the feast of the dedication is taken from 1 Mac 4:59.
John 10:36. Jesus accepts the inspiration of Maccabees as He analogizes the Hanukkah consecration to His own consecration the Father in 1 Maccabees 4:36.
John 15:6. Jesus’ explanation of fruitless branches that are cut down follows Wisdom 4:5, where branches are broken off.