The Doctrine of Sola Scriptura teaches that
- Holy Scripture is the ultimate authority for the Church. It teaches that
-the Church and all tradition must be subordinated and held accountable to the Scriptures, in that Scripture ALONE is God-breathed and therefore our only infallible rule of faith. It also teaches that
-all that is necessary for salvation is made plain in Scripture, so that an individual, by the enablement of the Holy Spirit alone, can understand the essentials of salvation and of the Christian life. It also teaches that
all that is necessary to be believed for faith and morals is clearly revealed in Scripture.
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Hi chosensinner,
Code:
let me say first that I respect very much and enjoy your contribution here, and welcome to CAF. :)
In considering yours as well as other definitions of SS, the real question I consider we have to tackle is this: we’re a speaking about a text, the Sacred Text. You tell me Scripture is the ultimate authority ( I hope Christ is, for every christian, BTW.
Obvious as it may sound, this should lead us to consider where the locus of visible available authority can be after AD 33 ( or 30

) ),it tells me perspucously everything necessary for salvation , for faith and morals. But, under what conditions ?
In other words, nothing is explained here about the CONtext within which the text has to be approached.
I wrote something on this line in posts 284 and 286. You may
want to give your impressions about them.
IMHO three main solutions have been proposed as far as the CONtext is concerned ( all admit the Holy Spirit is necessary this or that way, so that does not amount to real distinctions, IMHO):
- Myself ( pure perspicuity, or so called SOLO Scriptura approach)
- My own denomination, with its ministry and traditions ( “denominational SS”, the one which appears practically followed in faith communities), and …with its founder(s), who
happened to adhere to answer 1), and so had to “go by the Bible” out of their original faith comunity.
- The life of the Apostolic Church (catholic answer).
There is much confusion, IMHO, on this text-CONtext issue.
This is why many brothers put it like this: “we have Scripture you have the Church”.
All of us have Scripture, the text ( we got it though the Apostolic Church, BTW).
Then we manifestly differ about the CONtext. Everyone has a context, consciously or not.
The strange thing is, those who choose answer 1) or answer 2),
appear often to maintain that it amounts to declaring Scripture “perpicuous”, and that answer 3) means Scripture is
to be considered “obscure”.
They seem to fail to perceive that they refer to “perspicuity within their own CONtext”. It is the very plurality of CONtexts produced by answers 1) and 2) which does produce, IMHO, what could appear ( to observers within and outside Christianity) the “obscurity” of Scripture. Since we christians do offer this sad show, of so many doctrinal differences all claiming being “Bible-based” !
In a later post, you state SS ( or his sound understanding ) is not necessary for Salvation.
Well, in your proposed definition we have: "Scripture is the only
sound handbook of Salvation ", am I right ? ( it is complete and plain too). You deal with the hypothetical that SS is not in Scripture, stating SS is outside what is necessary for salvation.
If Scripture did not tell me it is the only handbook of salvation,
could that not jeopardize my salvation ?
After all, if I look for a handbook to drive a car, and among many
sources I find the only right one, but it does not show me what it is, how can I learn to drive ? That should be the plainest thing of all in the handbook:
This is the Handbook to drive this car".
The way of salvation not stating being the way of salvation makes it hard if not impossible.
So, even using the limitation *ratione materiae * ( what is necessary for salvation, faith, morals) you and others propose, does not save SS IMHO from being defeated in case it were unscriptural.
You may agree that unless you can show why in a protestant view SS is unnecessary, both for salvation, for faith ( I don’t get exactly this point maybe) and for morals, if SS as you define is not ( and “plainly” so) in Scripture, it is defeated.
In case it really is not necessary for or all that, what is SS necessary for ?

Why was it historically proposed ?
I tried some answers in post 284.
