Protestants do not really believe in Sola Scriptura

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That’s not what I’m saying.

My point is that I expect that had there been a clear oral tradition concerning the real presence, the church would have understood the workings of it right from the get go.

But it’s obvious they didn’t—it took more than 1100 years to define it because there was no clear oral tradition concerning it.
Paul seemed to be pretty clear about it.
I suggest looking at 1 Corinthians 11 beginning at verse 17.
Paul admonishes the Corinthians for their poor behavior at and in Church. then in Verses, 27-29 he says:
27 Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner, shall be guilty of the body and the blood of the Lord. 28 But a man must examine himself, and in so doing he is to eat of the bread and drink of the cup. 29 For he who eats and drinks, eats and drinks judgment to himself if he does not judge the body rightly.
This certainly sounds like a person who believes in the real presence to me.

As to things being, “Defined”, this often would happen only as a response to some heresy or other. Even doctrines long and widely held would not be defined if there was no pressing “need” for such definition.
If, in the early Church, the vast majority believed (as they certainly did) in the Real Presence because they were thus taught orally, there would be no “need” for a formal definition beyond the “Fact” of Christ’s own words and the teachings of the Church. It is only when certain people begin to ask, “How” is the real presence possible, or even begin to teach heresy tha the Church is forced to make a formal declaration of that which was heretofore always accepted.

Peace
James
 
Originally Posted by sandusky
The converse of your argument is true as well—there are no verses in scripture that teach me not to use scripture as my sole rule of faith and morals, is there?
I would add a couple of more items to the ones above.
  1. Christ Gave the Peter and the Apostles authority to Bind and Loose in His Church right after Giving Peter the Keys to the Kingdom. He did not require them to bind these things to scripture. He gave no conditions at all. Thus The Church, built upon the Apostles is bound directly to Christ’s Authority.
  2. Jesus told those who sin to “Take it to the Church” and if they reject the judgement of “The Church” they are to be cut off. Jesus did NOT say take it to Scripture, nor did he say take it to “A” church. What Church? The Church built upon the apostles. The One Church which is built upon Christ’s own authority given to the apostles and their successors.
Peace
James
 
Protestants were really honest with themselves and with others, they do not really believe in scripture alone. Example(s):
  1. Altar calls at the end of a message. Not found in scripture, this Tradition.
  2. Asking Jesus into your heart bying praying a prayer. Not found in scripture, this is Tradition.
  3. Protestants do not interpet scriptures with scripture(not always) but interpet them through life circumstances and through their experiences.
  4. Protestants also execpt thier leaders “infallible” interpetation of scripture.
How do I know this, I was a protestant for 23 years before I became Catholic:thumbsup:
What is you defintion of Sola Scriptura?
 
Mea Culpa:
Oh, is that how sola scriptura works? Anything not specifically prescribed against in the Bible is OK?
That’s not how it works, and that’s not my point.

You’re claiming that SS is unbiblical not because there’s no support for it in scripture, but because you’re unable to find any support for it in scripture, and it’s not surprising that you do that, as I doubt you’ve ever seriously sought any support for it, but rather seek support against it.
Mea Culpa:
OK, the Bible doesn’t teach me not to use Bugs Bunny cartoons as my sole rule of faith and morals. Therefore, it is OK for me to use Bugs Bunny cartoons as my sole rule of faith and morals. (by your logic)
No, that’s your logic, and that’s most of the problem.

You’re insisting that your definition of SS is the one that must be followed. IOW, you defining for me what I must believe. That’s very foolish.
Mea Culpa:
I’ll take your refusal to provide any citations from Scripture supporting sola scriptura as your tacit admission that there are no such passages.
You’re projecting.

The truth is, you can’t make a case either explicitly, or implicitly for or against SS; nevertheless, you expect that I should believe your opinion that it’s unbiblical.
Mea Culpa:
Now that we’ve established that sola scriptura is not taught anywhere in the Bible, can you tell me why
You beg the question. When did we establish this? Post number please.

Here you’ll find a number of papers on SS; perhaps from them, you’ll understand how those who adhere to SS define it.
 
You’re claiming that SS is unbiblical not because there’s no support for it in scripture, but because you’re unable to find any support for it in scripture.
**OK, so enlighten all of us -

Where is sola scriptura** taught in the Bible?
 
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McGluke:
Two passages come to mind right away that tell us that implicitly and explicitly that scripture is not the sole rule of faith.

John 21:24-25 It is this disciple who testifies to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true. There are also many other things that Jesus did, but if these were to be described individually, I do not think the whole world would contain the books that would be written.

2 Thes 2:15 So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the teachings[a] we passed on to you, whether by word of mouth or by letter.

The “fullness of truth” is transmitted through Sacred Tradition and Sacred Scripture via the Church. And, keep in mind that Paul tells us that the Church, not scripture" is the pillar and foundation of the truth.

1 Tim 3:15 if I am delayed, you will know how people ought to conduct themselves in God’s household, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth.
With respect to Jn 21, the verse says nothing about scripture not being the sole rule of faith, that’s your tradition talking.

What the verse says is that not all Jesus did was recorded; however, knowing that the writing of scripture was superintended by the Spirit, I’m certain that what He had recorded is all that needed.**John 20:30-31

30 Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book;

31 but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.**
2 Thess 2:15 tells you what the word of mouth was beginning in v1, pay attention to v5.

With respect to “fullness of truth,” as I said, “truth is truth,” the moment you qualify truth, you change it and negate it.
 
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JRKH:
Not at all. Catholics have no difficulty with oral tradition.
The difficulty of which you speak is an eccumenical one.
How is it an ecumenical problem?
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JRKH:
I can tell you for certain that they taught EVERYTHING orally since, with the exceptions of Mark and John, none of the apostles wrote a Gospel.
That the apostles taught orally is not an issue. The rest of the clause is but an assertion.
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JRKH:
My point was to demonstrate that, when a person insists on everything being written in order to be proven, it is practically impossible to have a meaningful conversation.
This is meant to disarm, but at its core is necessitated by the fact that you cannot produce a list of Oral Tradition, and that’s not my problem.

With respect to your earlier illustrations, I know that the writing of scripture was superintended by the Spirit, and I’m certain that what He had recorded is all that is needed.
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JRKH:
Paul seemed to be pretty clear about it.

I suggest looking at 1 Corinthians 11 beginning at verse 17.

Paul admonishes the Corinthians for their poor behavior at and in Church. then in Verses, 27-29
Every sinner who rejects Christ is guilty of His body and blood on the cross; likewise, any Christian coming to the Lord’s Supper in an “unworthy manner,” or in a “sinful disposition,” is guilty of the cross as well. Paul is not offering a theological treatise on the real presence in that passage; in fact, none of the writers of scripture offers a theological treatise on real presence.
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JRKH:
As to things being, “Defined”, this often would happen only as a response to some heresy or other. Even doctrines long and widely held would not be defined if there was no pressing “need” for such definition.
Correct.
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JRKH:
If, in the early Church, the vast majority believed (as they certainly did) in the Real Presence because they were thus taught orally, there would be no “need” for a formal definition beyond the “Fact” of Christ’s own words and the teachings of the Church.
That’s simply a statement of your position.
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JRKH:
It is only when certain people begin to ask, “How” is the real presence possible, or even begin to teach heresy tha the Church is forced to make a formal declaration of that which was heretofore always accepted.
Transubstantiation, being what it is, and the importance that the “one true church” places on it, I expect the Spirit would have explained it for us, in writing.
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JRKH:
Christ Gave the Peter and the Apostles authority to Bind and Loose in His Church right after Giving Peter the Keys to the Kingdom. He did not require them to bind these things to scripture. He gave no conditions at all. Thus The Church, built upon the Apostles is bound directly to Christ’s Authority.
Indeed it is.
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JRKH:
Jesus told those who sin to “Take it to the Church” and if they reject the judgement of “The Church” they are to be cut off. Jesus did NOT say take it to Scripture, nor did he say take it to “A” church. What Church? The Church built upon the apostles. The One Church which is built upon Christ’s own authority given to the apostles and their successors.
I believe the RCC lacks a proper understanding of that verse, and would cite, without going into details because it’s touchy for you, its leadership’s handling of the pedophile priests.

Furthermore, the verse says nothing about the sinner being “cut off,” but that he’s to be treated as a gentile and a tax collector (and if guilty of a felony, he should be immediately turned over to the civil authorities [cf Rom 13:1-4]).
 
**Still no answer from sandusky or other sola scriptura-ists on where sola scriptura is taught in the Bible. :bible1:

That is because it is not taught in the Bible. :nope:

If I’m wrong, just show where it is taught. :ehh:

Your silence is your assent that sola scriptura is unbiblical. :yup:

sola scriptura = everything we need to know is in the Bible

sola scriptura is not in the Bible

Therefore, sola scriptura is not something we need to know. 👍 **
 
2 Thess 2:15 tells you what the word of mouth was beginning in v1, pay attention to v5.

With respect to “fullness of truth,” as I said, “truth is truth,” the moment you qualify truth, you change it and negate it.
In 2 Thes 2:1-5 Paul tells the Thessalonians and us to beware of false teachers. In verse 15 he tells us to uphold what Paul himself has taught (Apostolic teaching). And that teaching comes to us orally (Tradition) or written (scripture).

I agree with your statement “truth is truth.” It is the mission of the Church to keep and transmit the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth to all generations.

Nothing in Tradition contradicts Sacred Scripture, tradition is the lense through which we view Scripture in order to properly understand it.
 
How is it an ecumenical problem?
Simple - the whole basis of this conversation is that We have no problem with Oral tradition and you do. Likewise You have no problem with Sola Scriptura and we do. So th problem lies, not in what we accept for ourselves, but in the manner by which we can explain and understand the other’s position.
It has been my experience that, where we are willing to look at each others positions and views on theology, doctrine and practice openly and with love, ther usually turns out to be a surprising amount of common ground.

I simply offer your list of responses below to my previous responses to your responses and so forth back through this thread as the example of the ecumenical difficulties we face.
That the apostles taught orally is not an issue. The rest of the clause is but an assertion.

This is meant to disarm, but at its core is necessitated by the fact that you cannot produce a list of Oral Tradition, and that’s not my problem.
We catholics are often accused of mis-understanding the concept of SS, and in my case that may well be true. However, in your case, it appears that you misunderstand the concept of Oral Tradition. I have tried to explain that it entails much more than the idea of some “list” as you seem to believe.
I would ask that you please simply reconsider ALL the the idea of Oral tradition entails.
With respect to your earlier illustrations, I know that the writing of scripture was superintended by the Spirit, and I’m certain that what He had recorded is all that is needed.
The Church supports that postion completely. The Holy Spirit caused to be recorded all that He Wished to be recorded. However, Christ left us a Church with a Tradition of all the nuances passed down by teaching through the apostles to the suceeding Church Leaders. (See the example of music training in previous post.)
Every sinner who rejects Christ is guilty of His body and blood on the cross; likewise, any Christian coming to the Lord’s Supper in an “unworthy manner,” or in a “sinful disposition,” is guilty of the cross as well. Paul is not offering a theological treatise on the real presence in that passage; in fact, none of the writers of scripture offers a theological treatise on real presence.
This is your position based on, 1) your reading of Scripture without the benefit of the Oral Teachings of The Church and, 2) The tradition passed on to you by the founders of the SS belief system.
Our position, fortified by 2000 years of tradition, is that there are several examples in the Bible where the authors obviously believe in the real presence. Outside of the Bible I can think of no better proof of the early church’s belief in the Real Presence than the Fact that Both the Catholic Church at Rome, and the Orthodox Churches believe the same. They believe in the Real and Substantial Presence of Our Lord in the Eucharist.
That’s simply a statement of your position.
Well we’re both doing a lot of that.😃
I appreciate your polite and highly Christian attitude. It’s a pleasure sharing with you.
Transubstantiation, being what it is, and the importance that the “one true church” places on it, **I expect **the Spirit would have explained it for us, in writing.
I think you are 1) putting too much emphasis on a definition and 2) missing the very real biblical instances of clear explanation.
In the first case, I would point to the fact that Gravity was real and excepted by all as fact long before Newton put any definition to it. The fact that it had not been defined did not change the truth of it any more than the lack of a definition for the Real Presence changed the truth of it.
In the second case, Jesus himself talked of the Real Presence when He told the disciples that they MUST eat His Flesh and He did not call them back when many left saying this teaching was too hard.
**I believe **the RCC lacks a proper understanding of that verse, and would cite, without going into details because it’s touchy for you, its leadership’s handling of the pedophile priests.
I appreciate your not wishing to get into details of the touchy subject. Every Catholic is rightly ashamed of what happened, just as any faith community should be ashamed in a similar situation. We are greatful that it has finally been brought to light and that the issue is being dealt with.
Furthermore, the verse says nothing about the sinner being “cut off,” but that he’s to be treated as a gentile and a tax collector (and if guilty of a felony, he should be immediately turned over to the civil authorities [cf Rom 13:1-4]).
I’m surprised at your assertion here. In Jewish law, gentiles and tax collectors WERE, in fact, cut-off. Considered as unclean and proper Jews would have little or nothing to do with them.
But this remains a detail to the actual point of the verse.
Christ Left us, not a book, but a Church - A church with His Authority to bind and Loose - He did not promise us a book, nor did he pormise to “Be With” a book. All of these Promises he gave to The Church - His Church.

Peace
James
 
What do you mean by the term Sola Scriptura?
In Order to answer the question above, I am posting this from a longer Article on Wikipedia. Then, if others have different take, they may post theirs.
SOLA SCRIPTURA
Sola scriptura (Latin ablative, “by scripture alone”) is the assertion that the Bible as God’s written word is self-authenticating, clear (perspicuous) to the rational reader, its own interpreter (“Scripture interprets Scripture”), and sufficient of itself to be the final authority of Christian doctrine.
Sola scriptura was a foundational doctrinal principle of the Protestant Reformation held by the Reformers and is a formal principle of Protestantism today
So the Question “Where is Sola Scriptura” taught in the Bible is a valid one based on the above definition.

My view of SS based upon the above definition is this:
  1. The Bible is not “Self Authenticating”. There is no prologue to the Bible Canon saying that this book is God’s full and complete rule of faith and morals. Comments made within specific books can only be applied to that book, or to books existing up to that time.
  2. The Councils who etablished the Canon of Scripture, as well as those councils that re-affirmed the canon, never issued any statements indicating the the Canon should or could be considered complete apart from the foundation of the Church.
    Therefore SS fails the first test of the Bible being being self authenticating.
  3. The Bible is not "Clear to the rational reader as the numbers of differing interpretations of the same Bible passages, even within the Non-Catholic Community of Churches attests
    Thus SS fails the second test of it being clear to the rational reader as well as the third test of being it’s own interpretor.
The final “nail” for SS is the very fact that Sacred Scripture, The Bible, was changed by the same people who espoused it’s supreme sacredness and sufficiency. The removal of the Deuterocanonicals from the OT by Protestant Leaders, materially changes the very Word of God that that they are claiming to be Sufficient Unto Itself. This one fact undermines the very premise upon which SS is built.

Peace
James
 
Protestants were really honest with themselves and with others, they do not really believe in scripture alone. Example(s):
  1. Altar calls at the end of a message. Not found in scripture, this Tradition.
  2. Asking Jesus into your heart bying praying a prayer. Not found in scripture, this is Tradition.
  3. Protestants do not interpet scriptures with scripture(not always) but interpet them through life circumstances and through their experiences.
  4. Protestants also execpt thier leaders “infallible” interpetation of scripture.
How do I know this, I was a protestant for 23 years before I became Catholic:thumbsup:
King James only-ism is a trdition.😃

I have a collection of 40 Bible translations, so you know I’m going to hell!😛
 
In Order to answer the question above, I am posting this from a longer Article on Wikipedia. Then, if others have different take, they may post theirs.

So the Question “Where is Sola Scriptura” taught in the Bible is a valid one based on the above definition.

My view of SS based upon the above definition is this:
  1. The Bible is not “Self Authenticating”. There is no prologue to the Bible Canon saying that this book is God’s full and complete rule of faith and morals. Comments made within specific books can only be applied to that book, or to books existing up to that time.
  2. The Councils who etablished the Canon of Scripture, as well as those councils that re-affirmed the canon, never issued any statements indicating the the Canon should or could be considered complete apart from the foundation of the Church.
    Therefore SS fails the first test of the Bible being being self authenticating.
  3. The Bible is not "Clear to the rational reader as the numbers of differing interpretations of the same Bible passages, even within the Non-Catholic Community of Churches attests
    Thus SS fails the second test of it being clear to the rational reader as well as the third test of being it’s own interpretor.
The final “nail” for SS is the very fact that Sacred Scripture, The Bible, was changed by the same people who espoused it’s supreme sacredness and sufficiency. The removal of the Deuterocanonicals from the OT by Protestant Leaders, materially changes the very Word of God that that they are claiming to be Sufficient Unto Itself. This one fact undermines the very premise upon which SS is built.

Peace
James
This is what i think of when i think of Sola Scriptura:
“Sola scriptura teaches that the Scriptures are the sole infallible rule of faith for the Church. The doctrine does not say that there are not other, fallible, rules of faith, or even traditions, that we can refer to and even embrace. It does say, however, that the only infallible rule of faith is Scripture. This means that all other rules, whether we call them traditions, confessions of faith, creeds, or anything else, are by nature inferior to and subject to correction by, the Scriptures. The Bible is an ultimate authority, allowing no equal, nor superior, in tradition or church. It is so because it is theopneustos, God-breathed, and hence embodies the very speaking of God, and must, of necessity therefore be of the highest authority.”

As you can see by this defintion that only the Scriptures alone are inspired-inerrant. This is why they are the ultimate authority in regards to doctrine and practice.
 
What the verse says is that not all Jesus did was recorded; however, knowing that the writing of scripture was superintended by the Spirit, I’m certain that what He had recorded is all that needed.
Now this is YOU inserting you’re own man made interpretation
on the assumption that the Holy Spirit wrote the Bible specifically for Everything that is needed. Yet He couldn’t get the Apostles to explicitly teach about the Trinity in one verse, Divorce, Baptism, Once Saved Always saved, speaking in tongues or whatever else you guys have problems with interpreting. We can’t even see in one verse in the entire Bible that Scripture is ALL we need in explicit detail or if so important, why ALL the Apostles didn’t write. I guess they were of no use to Jesus then since they were neglected in that area and since preaching orally wouldn’t suffice. 😛

The point is, they taught orally and also wrote and simply saying one knocks the other off the list is quite ridiculous, especially with zero doctrines to even back that up.

Yes the Holy Spirit decided to not want the Apostles to say the Father, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit are One God. He would rather the world or seekers to all struggle to find out what they are saying when it comes to important Doctrines. :rolleyes:
 
Can somebody answer the question? No sidetracking about altar calls, etc. Just answer the question.

Where is sola scriptura taught in the Bible?
 
This is what i think of when i think of Sola Scriptura:
“Sola scriptura teaches that the Scriptures are the sole infallible rule of faith for the Church. The doctrine does not say that there are not other, fallible, rules of faith, or even traditions, that we can refer to and even embrace. It does say, however, that the only infallible rule of faith is Scripture. This means that all other rules, whether we call them traditions, confessions of faith, creeds, or anything else, are by nature inferior to and subject to correction by, the Scriptures. The Bible is an ultimate authority, allowing no equal, nor superior, in tradition or church. It is so because it is theopneustos, God-breathed, and hence embodies the very speaking of God, and must, of necessity therefore be of the highest authority.”

As you can see by this defintion that only the Scriptures alone are inspired-inerrant. This is why they are the ultimate authority in regards to doctrine and practice.
It is against the forum rules to post a quote like this without giving the reference.

It is interesting here that you have allowed your whole Christian experience to be governed by a principle that is not found in Scripture. 🤷
 
This is what i think of when i think of Sola Scriptura:
“Sola scriptura teaches that the Scriptures are the sole infallible rule of faith for the Church. The doctrine does not say that there are not other, fallible, rules of faith, or even traditions, that we can refer to and even embrace. It does say, however, that the only infallible rule of faith is Scripture. This means that all other rules, whether we call them traditions, confessions of faith, creeds, or anything else, are by nature inferior to and subject to correction by, the Scriptures. The Bible is an ultimate authority, allowing no equal, nor superior, in tradition or church. It is so because it is theopneustos, God-breathed, and hence embodies the very speaking of God, and must, of necessity therefore be of the highest authority.”

As you can see by this defintion that only the Scriptures alone are inspired-inerrant. This is why they are the ultimate authority in regards to doctrine and practice.
The “Fly in the ointment” though is the fact that:
Jesus did not Give His Authority to the Bible. He Gave it to His Church. It is Christ’s Authrotitative Church, empowered to bind and loose which is the authority by which the Bible is properly understood.

The Bible (scriptures) as we know it today did not exist until after 350 years after the founding of the Church.
While Scriptures are indeed known to be “God Breathed”, we only know this through the certitude of The Church.
They were God Breathed and given to The Church which, through Her God Given Authority, seperated these True Books from literally hundreds of False Books then in circulation.

Which Came first The Church or the Bible you Hold in your hand?
Which has the Authority of Christ 's own words?

Peace
James
 
King James only-ism is a trdition.😃

I have a collection of 40 Bible translations, so you know I’m going to hell!😛
The King James is newer then the Douay-Rheims. The DR was translated from the Latin Vulgate in the year of our Lord 1582 for the New Testament and then the Old Testament followed in the year of our Lord 1609.

I must admit that I prefer the old english in the DR and the Complete King James versions. The books that are missing in the Protestant books (bible) were included in the original KJV and deleted at a later time.

Can you tell me who has the final say as to the 40 translations you own. Is each translation left up to the individual as to its accuracy?

In the Catholic Church Rome has the final say as to the authenticity of each official translation used for study and at Mass.
 
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