P
PeteZaHut
Guest
How do Protestant denominations back up their disbelief in the true presence of the Eucharist?
What do they say about the trogo/phago argument?
What do they say about the trogo/phago argument?
Why, Jesus was only speaking symbolically. Don’t you know anything?How do Protestant denominations back up their disbelief in the true presence of the Eucharist?
What do they say about the trogo/phago argument?
I imagine your pastor had to change this wording after President Clinton used this phrase to defend himself, eh?I don’t know much about the Trogo/Phago argument, but i can tell you what my former pastor taught about the real presence.
It’s simply a matter of the meaning of the word is.When Jesus said this is my body and blood, He didn’t say this will become or has become my body and blood. He said this is, or represents my body and blood.
I’m not really sure what you are saying here. If John 6 is not talking about the Eucharist, what is it talking about?John Chapter 6 is not speaking of the Eucharist, it is figurative speech.
That is not of coure to deny the real presence. We see for example the words which are not figurative where Jesus says this is my body and this is my blood.
One can see that that is not intended to be figurative when Paul in 1 Corinthians uses rhetorical questions that demand the answer “yes”.
(1Co 10:16 NET) Is not the cup of blessing that we bless a sharing in the blood of Christ? Is not the bread that we break a sharing in the body of Christ?
People get screwed up over John 6. They think because that is figurative that all passages that mention Christ’s body and blood must be figurative, though that isn’t actually the origin of the problem.
The Catholics took their dogma of transubstantiation from the philosophies of Plato and Aristotle. That is actually the same source for the disbelief of many Protestants in the real presence. Philosophy teaches that a physical body can only be one place at a time, since Jesus is seated at the right hand of the Father, his body cannot be other than there, therefore, the real presence of Jesus’ body and blood is denied.
Lutherans and Orthodox are in such close agreement that you really can’t tell any differences in their understanding which comes from scripture. Catholics and Protestants who deny the real presence both agree to turn to philosophy to understand scripture, they just disagree on which part of philosophy to take.
Are you willing to assert infallibility on this interpretation of yours which is against the likes of:John Chapter 6 is not speaking of the Eucharist, it is figurative speech.
People get screwed up over John 6.
Please!How do Protestant denominations back up their disbelief in the true presence of the Eucharist?
What do they say about the trogo/phago argument?
That’s wonderful! Now, can you just convince the other “X” 1000 denominations of this fact?Please!
Distinguendum est inter “protestants”!
I would be classified as “protestant”, and of course I believe that the Lord is truly present in Holy Communion.
Although it is true that many “protestants” do not believe this, it is not true of all. The Lutheran and Anglican churches, first and foremost, hold to the Biblical teaching on Holy Communion: That it is the body and blood of the Lord.
John Chapter 6 is not speaking of the Eucharist, it is figurative speech.
That is not of coure to deny the real presence. We see for example the words which are not figurative where Jesus says this is my body and this is my blood.
One can see that that is not intended to be figurative when Paul in 1 Corinthians uses rhetorical questions that demand the answer “yes”.
(1Co 10:16 NET) Is not the cup of blessing that we bless a sharing in the blood of Christ? Is not the bread that we break a sharing in the body of Christ?
People get screwed up over John 6. They think because that is figurative that all passages that mention Christ’s body and blood must be figurative, though that isn’t actually the origin of the problem.
The Catholics took their dogma of transubstantiation from the philosophies of Plato and Aristotle. That is actually the same source for the disbelief of many Protestants in the real presence. Philosophy teaches that a physical body can only be one place at a time, since Jesus is seated at the right hand of the Father, his body cannot be other than there, therefore, the real presence of Jesus’ body and blood is denied.
Lutherans and Orthodox are in such close agreement that you really can’t tell any differences in their understanding which comes from scripture. Catholics and Protestants who deny the real presence both agree to turn to philosophy to understand scripture, they just disagree on which part of philosophy to take.
I don’t use them to understand scripture. Catholics who believe in transubstantiation and Protestants who deny the real presence both do.haha, notworthy, but actually, i’m pretty sure he still uses that sermon.
Jolly Joe, where do you get this idea that philosophies of aristotle and plato should be used to help understand Scripture? Sure many Church Fathers were influenced by aristotilian ideas, however if you’ve ever read what they had to say on the matter you would find that they knew they couldn’t reach a complete understanding of God using aristotle or plato. It was in realizing this that they came to know Christ through the Church!
Consubstantiation is often used by people to say this is what Lutherans believe and it has been used at times but it’s a term that is prone to say more than is meant.LutheranDK,
I thought Lutherans believed in Consubstantiation rather than Transubstantiation with regard to the Eucharist?
Can you please help me out on this?
~RSF