The early church did not use reason.
The Holy Spirit guided the bishops.** the bishops maybe used reason** to determine a criteria to narrow the field but in the end it was faith and the Holy Spirit that led the bishops to determined the canon.
Can you please explain the two bolded statements and how they do not contradict? Certainly reason was used by Paul in Acts 17? Certainly the letters written to the Church by the Apostles were written using reason. Even though Paul was guided by the Holy Spirit he would still quote old non-Jewish writings to make a point. This was the Holy Spirit working through Paul, hand in hand with reason.
The reasons the Early Church gave while being guided by the Holy Spirit are the same reasons you can give now, and so can I. Catholics here are famous for saying “the Bible did not just fall out of the sky” but stating that reason wasn’t used makes it sound like you think it did.
I have been researching this area more and I would like you to read this, I think it could at the very least soften your view that this is a breaking point for you.
I think you would enjoy the whole article:
socrates58.blogspot.com/2007/03/protestant-inquisition-reformation.html?m=1
I don’t really consider that research as it doesn’t address what I have said, rather you’ve used a strawman argument and have directed it back at Protestants. My argument wasn’t that “the people were bad” it’s that “the Church had bad teachings.”
Twelfth Ecumenical Council:
Lateran IV 1215
“Secular authorities, whatever office they may hold, shall be admonished and induced and
if necessary compelled by ecclesiastical censure, that as they wish to be esteemed and numbered among the faithful, so for the defense of the faith they ought publicly to take an oath that they will
strive in good faith and to the best of their ability to exterminate in the territories subject to their jurisdiction all heretics pointed out by the Church; so that whenever anyone shall have assumed authority, whether spiritual or temporal, let him be bound to confirm this decree by oath. But if a temporal ruler, after having been requested and admonished by the Church,** should neglect to cleanse his territory of this heretical foulness, let him be excommunicated** by the metropolitan and the other bishops of the province. If he refuses to make satisfaction within a year, let the matter be made known to the supreme pontiff, that he may declare the ruler’s vassals absolved from their allegiance and may offer the territory to be ruled lay Catholics, who on the extermination of the heretics may possess it without hindrance and preserve it in the purity of faith; the right, however, of the chief ruler is to be respected as long as he offers no obstacle in this matter and permits freedom of action. The same law is to be observed in regard to those who have no chief rulers (that is, are independent).
Catholics who have girded themselves with the cross for the extermination of the heretics, shall enjoy the indulgences and privileges granted to those who go in defense of the Holy Land.”
“…But if any of them by damnable obstinacy should disapprove of the oath and should perchance be unwilling to swear, from this very fact let them be regarded as heretics.”
There wasn’t even opportunity for the people to protest this without being deemed “heretics.” The Church took part in the promotion of the extermination of heretics in their councils.
So all I’m asking is if the words from this council have been renounced? Assuming the Holy Spirit was working through these men and their words, then I can also assume it is binding and still true to this day; except Catholics just ignore it now. Or, perhaps this council has been rejected and there’s no reason to believe that they were ever correct, nor are they correct now. What is the official position regarding this council and the words spoken therein?
I believe in my research, it is impossible to find such a group at that time, further, the Catholic Church does not exterminate heretics while upholding the teachings you quote. That leads to the conclusion a link is missing in your chain.
By your logic in this area, I can say that Lutheranism is false because if the hate Luther showed for the Jews.
Or
Calvinism is false because he had heretics and dissidents executed
Etc
Etc
Etc
Then you might say, "my modern evangelical church has never executed anyone " to which I say, neither had the Catholic Church or Lutherans or others in that sane time period.
Why?
Because society changed and the civil constructs changed.
I have no doubts that many a Protestant church, if given it’s own nation today, may very well consider executing heretics, gays, adulterers, etc…
Yup. Jesus was ahead of His time and the Church fell back. If the Church leaders were always Pope Francis, who I believe does a great job representing the teachings of Christ, then the leaders may not have provoked the authorities to harm heretics. But this certainly was due to the inspiration of the Church, writing in Church wide documents that all must believe; and those who did not believe and take such an oath were also bound to excommunication. It was a scary time to want to be a Protestant, that’s for sure.
Waldo had guts, and so did his followers but that didn’t get them far.
(Also from the Article: )
Dr. Luther, who firmly held to consubstantiation
Come on man.