P
PRmerger
Guest
I think I’ve demonstrated quite effectively that the use of the word “until” IN SCRIPTURE says nothing about what happened subsequently.What if you tell your son, "You can’t drive until you’re 18; does mean he can’t drive before 18, can he drive after 18?![]()
That’s a clear example of your using your man-made tradition to determine this. As you stated: (“and non-catholics, can’t prove that she did” ) Scripture says *nothing at all *about Joseph having consummated his marriage.But, as a faithful, obedient husband, I do believe that he did have sex with her.
And what does Scripture say about what we should do when 2 people disagree about a theological issue? Take it to the Church. So you have no authority to declare something a tie. Again, that’s your man-made tradition!Actually this issue could be declared a tie; seeings as how catholics can’t prove she didn’t have sex, and non-catholics, can’t prove that she did:thumbsup:
Could you please elaborate on what you mean here?If we promote public(and yes non-catholic religions do read some) reading of the Bible, then why bother having individual Bibles? tO follow along?![]()
St. Paul says quite explicitly: Until I come, give attention to the public reading of Scripture, to exhortation and teaching.
Do you think it means they’re supposed to stop reading Scripture after St. Paul arrives?