Protestants: How Do You Know That Your Interpretation of the Bible is the Right one? Part II

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Are you claiming they had a printing press in Judea? Are you trying to take the poor KJV translation for the word (Gr: Ginomai) “published” and make it mean “written”? Because it means no such thing. The word implies nothing about writing at all.
The printing press was not created until the 1500’s I believe. So if they didn’t have a press, scripture would of had to been hand written.
 
Guess it was better for them to choose the same books which the Jews chose in 90AD… you know, the Jews who were irate about those upstart Christians and who sought a way to discredit them.
So catholics have more authority over the OT then the Jews who actually lived it? I don’t think so.
 
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The translators of the King James Version said that the Apocrypha was not to be viewed as Holy Scripture because it was not written in Hebrew, nor ever accepted by the Jewish canon or early Christians, nor ever mentioned by Jesus Christ.
The translators of the KJV were wrong as demonstrated to you earlier. The DC’s were known and used by Christ
Please give me a list of exact quotes by Jesus that are in the apocrypha?
 
Please give me a list of exact quotes by Jesus that are in the apocrypha?
Other than Paul quoting Jesus on the Reality and importance of the Real Presence, please give me a list of any quotes where Paul quotes Jesus. Or should we consider tossing much of the Gospels because our St Paul did not quote them.??

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The printing press was not created until the 1500’s I believe. So if they didn’t have a press, scripture would of had to been hand written.
No kidding. Obviously, my comment was tongue in cheek. The gospel was spread by word of mouth primarily in the first century. People became Christians AND THEN the Apostles wrote letters to them. The church existed prior to all known New Testament scriptures. This is self-evident. Paul could not write a letter to a church unless a church already existed.
 
Please give me a list of exact quotes by Jesus that are in the apocrypha?
I posted the link to this earlier - AND remeinded you of that link at least one other time.
But since you do not wish to look at it, here is the list of the DC’s being referenced in the NT

I just tried to do a cut and paste from the site to this post, but since it is over 9000 characters long I decided not to use up so much space. HERE AGAIN IS THE LINK

Below are just a few from that page.

Matt. 2:16 - Herod’s decree of slaying innocent children was prophesied in Wis. 11:7 - slaying the holy innocents.

Matt. 6:19-20 - Jesus’ statement about laying up for yourselves treasure in heaven follows Sirach 29:11 - lay up your treasure.

Matt… 7:12 - Jesus’ golden rule “do unto others” is the converse of Tobit 4:15 - what you hate, do not do to others.

Matt. 7:16,20 - Jesus’ statement “you will know them by their fruits” follows Sirach 27:6 - the fruit discloses the cultivation.

Matt. 9:36 - the people were “like sheep without a shepherd” is same as Judith 11:19 - sheep without a shepherd.

Mark 9:48 - description of hell where their worm does not die and the fire is not quenched references Judith 16:17.

John 6:35-59 - Jesus’ Eucharistic discourse is foreshadowed in Sirach 24:21.

John 15:6 - branches that don’t bear fruit and are cut down follows Wis. 4:5 where branches are broken off.

Rom. 1:20 - specifically, God’s existence being evident in nature follows Wis. 13:1.

1 Cor. 10:20 - what pagans sacrifice they offer to demons and not to God refers to Baruch 4:7.

1 Cor. 15:29 - if no expectation of resurrection, it would be foolish to be baptized on their behalf follows 2 Macc. 12:43-45.

The list at the link is MUCH longer.

Peace
James
 
Please give me a list of exact quotes by Jesus that are in the apocrypha?
Are you claiming that a book must be quoted by Jesus to be in the Canon? Just trying to clarify. (Actually, just trying to give you enough rope to hang yourself). There are five Old Testament books that are never once quoted in the New Testament, and I believe Jesus only directly quotes 24 of them, so this can’t possibly be the only criteria. You are severely oversimplifying.
 
No kidding. Obviously, my comment was tongue in cheek. The gospel was spread by word of mouth primarily in the first century. People became Christians AND THEN the Apostles wrote letters to them. The church existed prior to all known New Testament scriptures. This is self-evident. Paul could not write a letter to a church unless a church already existed.
Acts 13:49 And the word of the Lord was published throughout all the region.

Acts 10:37 That word, I say, ye know, which was published throughout all Judaea, and began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached;
 
Acts 13:49 And the word of the Lord was published throughout all the region.

Acts 10:37 That word, I say, ye know, which was published throughout all Judaea, and began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached;
Do you often repeat yourself after being refuted? “Published” does not mean written. It does not even imply that writing was used.
 
Are you claiming that a book must be quoted by Jesus to be in the Canon? Just trying to clarify. (Actually, just trying to give you enough rope to hang yourself). There are five Old Testament books that are never once quoted in the New Testament, and I believe Jesus only directly quotes 24 of them, so this can’t possibly be the only criteria. You are severely oversimplifying.
And weren’t these five books you speak of recognized by the Jews as God’s Word?
 
I posted the link to this earlier - AND remeinded you of that link at least one other time.
But since you do not wish to look at it, here is the list of the DC’s being referenced in the NT
I am speaking of exact quotes James.
 
And weren’t these five books you speak of recognized by the Jews as God’s Word?
Look, my friend, you need to learn some basic logic here. Stop trying to shift the burden of proof, and stop answering with more questions.

Is quoting by Jesus the only criteria for being canonical or not? Because your question suggested that is what you believe.

I suggest you go read about the Council of Jamnia (a.k.a. Jabneh). When the Jews “decided” their canon, part of their “problem” was refuting belief in Jesus as the Christ. Are you sure that’s who you want to use as your authority?
 
SDcatholic: I believe that, originally, of course, Jesus was speaking to His disciples in reference to sending the Advocate(Holy Spirit). But ultimately, because we believe, and are saved, by the blood of Christ, every Word that is spoken in the Holy Bible, is also directed to us:D Somone once told me that in Jeremiah 29:11, this only applied to the Israelites:confused: I replied, "Well, yes, at the time, that’s who this promise was directed at! But, because we have been grafted in(Romans 11:17). So, when you read, “Be still, and know that I am God,” He’s talking to you also!👍
 
On Friday, April 3, my wife and I watched the Glory of Easter, a production about the last week of Jesus’s life! In it, they portrayed such things as the healing of the blind man(John 9), the meeting with the accused adulteress, and the scene in the Temple, wher Jesus overturned the moneychanger’s tables. During the scene, depicting the Last Supper, Jesus , of course broke the bread, blessed it and gave each disciple a piece. He then drank from the cup and passed it around for each disciple to drink of.My wife turned to me, and asked,“If the catholic church believes that John 6:51-62, is the basis for how they do communion, then why don’t they hold their own bread(wafer), and why is the priest the only one who drinks the wine?” I told her I didn’t know for sure, but would put the question out for discussion on the forum:confused:
 
This is a non-starter. You’re misinterpreting, pretty horrendously, 2 Peter 1:20. This passage is quite clearly about the origin of prophecy, not the interpretation of the written Word of God.

i.e. God didn’t say, “OK, Isaiah, this is the message I want you to tell Israel, you can decide how to deliver it.” No, God said, “Isaiah, tell Israel XYZ exactly.”
See, you’re already off on the wrong track… demonstrating the type of problem that occurs from private interpretation, and reinforcing exactly why this thread was formed.
 
The other reason the “personal interpretation” debate is ridiculous is that it is one big Catholic question-begging fest. The point is, you’re misapplying 2 Peter 1:20, which is obvious from the verse itself, and verse 21, which explicitly indicates Peter is talking about the ORIGIN of the prophecy, and not interpretation of the Word of God. An explicit statement in scripture does not lend itself to interpretation, so even if you were correct that “personal interpretation is not allowed” explicit statements would be excluded.

The Catholic claim is also inconsistent. I could just as easily ask you how you know the Catholic church’s interpretation is correct, and it would be just as valid of a question. Just because you’ve surrendered your intellect to a third party in matters of Biblical interpretation doesn’t mean you are more likely to be correct.
Actually, there is no error in official Catholic teaching. There is great error in what people assume (wrongly) that the Catholic Church teaches.
 
SDcatholic: I believe that, originally, of course, Jesus was speaking to His disciples in reference to sending the Advocate(Holy Spirit). But ultimately, because we believe, and are saved, by the blood of Christ, every Word that is spoken in the Holy Bible, is also directed to us:D Somone once told me that in Jeremiah 29:11, this only applied to the Israelites:confused: I replied, "Well, yes, at the time, that’s who this promise was directed at! But, because we have been grafted in(Romans 11:17). So, when you read, “Be still, and know that I am God,” He’s talking to you also!👍
I believe Jesus told certain people certain things for a reason, I wonder why Jesus didn’t invite everyone up for the transifiguration or for the last supper… Some things perhaps but I think you are reaching a lonnnnnng way to make it seem right… certainly all who claim to be guided without error by the Holy Spirit haven’t lived up to what the HS would guide… SO if he meant that we would all be guided by the HS without error than I’m affraid he has some explaining to do.

SD
 
For one, the Catholic church isn’t the only one with an apostolic claim. Secondly, quite frankly, the Jews were the people of God as long as the Catholics have been around and the Jews’ status was given to others, or perhaps it could be said that they misunderstood their status thinking that they could never not be the people of God. I’m just sayin.

Let’s ask the question another way: who has the authority to determine which church is the true church?

You fail to see that the problem applies to Catholics as much as to Protestants when we simply rephrase the question. It doesn’t matter who your authority for interpreting the Bible is. At some point in your life, you made a “personal interpretation” that the Catholic church is the true church. If personal interpretation is inherently wrong, then it is wrong for Catholics too.
Peter was so right on… the ignorant twist Scriptures to their own destruction. Sadly, it affects many who may otherwise really like to know Christ.

2 Peter 3:16 “As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are certain things hard to be understood, which the unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, to their own destruction.

I thank God that He established His one true Church, and has protected her from error in teaching faith and morals. This is truly a wonderful blessing. We are not left to flounder and flail about, with error upon error. We who humbly honor what He established are able to truly know Him as much as He has revealed in public revelation. I thank God for the Catholic Church, His Body, His Bride.
 
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