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Antipopes are not real popes…check your sources.Unbroken history?
Does that include having three popes / antipopes at the same time?
Antipopes are not real popes…check your sources.Unbroken history?
Does that include having three popes / antipopes at the same time?
Yes, as a matter of fact it does.Unbroken history?
Does that include having three popes / antipopes at the same time?
Care to explain how?Yes, as a matter of fact it does.
Wormwood said:**As for 18, This could mean many things. The keys could be insight, or assurance that the apostles would join Jesus after death. The keys could be the key points of his teachings or anything else. The second part of the verse is also highly interpretable. It could mean anything from what you say, to a restatement of do unto others. The point I am trying to make is that the verse does not clearly spell out what the church claims. What authority was given? **
What do you mean mine?List of Popes: (does yours match?)
Stephen II (752) – Omitted from many lists (including the Vatican’s) because he died before being consecrated.
Sylvester III (1045) – Considered by some to be an antipope
Get off it Man… if you can’t handle the honest answers then stop asking the questions.What do you mean mine?
Yours doesn’t even match.
Was Sylvester III a pope or an antipope?
How about Stephen II, was he or was he not a pope?
The Vatican doesn’t think so, but your list has him. Is your list more reliable than the Vatican’s? If not, why are you quoting from it? Why not use the Vatican’s I thought that they had the official word on these matters.
And if, in fact, there is an "unbroken’ line of popes, as you claim, then why isn’t there only one list instead of several? Very curious…
Peace
Irenaeus:
- You have to show that the bishops of Rome have received Peter’s authority in a manner qualitatively different from that in which other bishops have received it. There are a good many patristic passages that can be cited on both sides of this one, so you hardly have a clear-cut case.
http://www.apostolic.net/biblicalstudies/binding.htm
- You have to show that the power Jesus granted Peter included the charism of infallibility, such that in any major church-dividing controversy Peter’s successors (this of course depends on pt. 1) will represent the true Church. This is the real sticking point for me. I accept that the bishops of Rome are successors of Peter (whether this can be said to be by direct divine authority or simply by providential, historical development I’m not sure). But I am not convinced that any division between them and other Christians amounts to a rebellion against Christ’s Church on the part of the other Christians. And that is really the key point. (Pt. 1 returns here, inasmuch as many of us think that the power given to all the apostles in chap. 18 is essentially the same as the power here given to Peter; thus, while we recognize the primacy of Rome, we don’t think that the power of the keys can simply be reduced to papal authority.)
So what?!As for the anti-pope in question, so what? Do you see a gap there in those dates? NO. There is a valid pope whenever there may be anti-popes, (we have them today…) so there still is no unbroken line.
Certainly an interesting observation, Kristina, but do you not see any difference at all between Jesus singling out Peter personally and giving him the keys to the kingdom of heaven, and Jesus addressing a group of men and infusing them with the holy spirit? Both are magical and important events, of course, but both are certainly different, as well.If this passage isn’t instituting Peter as the first Pope, it’s simply giving first to Peter the authority that is later given to all the apostles (or all Christians, depending on your interpretation) in John 20:21-23. The “keys” are simply a metaphor for this authority.
And I said “convincingly” addressed.I talked about it already:
The thing most catholics fail to realize is that I am not protestant. And one obscure verse hardly seems enough evidence for such bold assertions, that are contrary to a very direct verse against those very assertions.The thing that most protestants dont realize is that Matt16:18-19 is not the ONLY verse Catholics use (though one is enough).
Yes, FIRST ONE not ONLY ONE…that DOES seem important.one important one was when he was given the vision in Acts10 to be the first one to open the door to Gentiles! VERY IMPORTANT!
You certainly can think of many things that the image of keys could signify, but what we should do is see what it would signify to the people Jesus was speaking to - Jews.
You are making sense up to this point…then you descend into pure speculation without offering one bit of evidence or one example to support your claims.They were awaiting a Messiah, of the line of David, who would establish a new kingdom that would last until the end of time. These things are clear in the Old Testament Scriptures
Obviously I can’t make them up as well as you, but if one were to look at the jewish audience you spoke of, one would be likely to notice that the jews don’t even believe christ was the messiah. If you were refering only to the apostles, you should take note that all of the apostles were there but it was peter that spoke up, so it was he that was addressed first, but all of the apostles were also likewise blessed (even Judas).So you can make up lots of potential things that Jesus may have meant, but the meaning that makes sense when looking at his audience, Jewish history, and the activity of the development of the early Church, is the Catholic interpretation.
The fact that it hasn’t “fallen in on itself” but has survived this dark period of history, a Catholic would say, evidences the power of the Holy Spirit to uphold the Church.So we’re left with an unratified Councilar verdict that cannot be abandoned lest the entire house of cards falls in upon itself.
So what, exactly, are you? Why don’t you update your profile and quit hiding in anonymity? You’re not Catholic, you’re not Protestant; Orthodox? Athiest? Panthiest? Hindu? Put an end to the mistakes people make about you, and explain what you believe.The thing most catholics fail to realize is that I am not protestant…
Edwin,There are two major hurdles that Catholics have to overcome:
Edwin
- You have to show that the bishops of Rome have received Peter’s authority in a manner qualitatively different from that in which other bishops have received it. There are a good many patristic passages that can be cited on both sides of this one, so you hardly have a clear-cut case.
Edwin, re 2 up above, consider the following…Edwin
- You have to show that the power Jesus granted Peter included the charism of infallibility, such that in any major church-dividing controversy Peter’s successors (this of course depends on pt. 1) will represent the true Church. This is the real sticking point for me. I accept that the bishops of Rome are successors of Peter (whether this can be said to be by direct divine authority or simply by providential, historical development I’m not sure). But I am not convinced that any division between them and other Christians amounts to a rebellion against Christ’s Church on the part of the other Christians. And that is really the key point. (Pt. 1 returns here, inasmuch as many of us think that the power given to all the apostles in chap. 18 is essentially the same as the power here given to Peter; thus, while we recognize the primacy of Rome, we don’t think that the power of the keys can simply be reduced to papal authority.)