Protestants: Is the First Council of Nicaea inspired or not?

[Justy90]

So you’re interpreting this as, because the bishops of Alexandria and Antioch had jurisdiction over certain areas, there was therefore no Papal supremacy?

Also, i’m confused as to your statement of " If the Bishop of Rome had supremacy over all churches in an infallible fashion". Is this contrasting supremacy over all churches in a fallible fashion? Sorry, just confused by the correlation between supremacy and infallibility, which may not really be necessary in this context.

His statement is going to reason as why this large of juristiction would have been given in the purposed circumstance. I think he is right. I don’t believe that papal supremacy was in any way associated with Nicaea.

 

[youngsaint]

ahhh, but is that dictionary inspired? As to whether the first council of Nicaea was inspired,…Gottle and his dictionary got it right.

Who cares if its inspired? its a history book!

 

[Harpazo]

Hi Andrew.
It begs the question; if the Bishop of Rome already had universal jurisdiction, why was it even necessary for Nicaea to designate his jurisdiction?

Jon

That’s a great point. I have a similar question pertaining to Cyprus’s autocephaly in one of those early councils. That never got answered.

In Christ,
Andrew