Protestants: The 1500 yrs

  • Thread starter Thread starter CMatt25
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Actually, I have to say more. There is no question that Nestorius was condemned by a council of Bishops. It is totally bizarre to say this was a unilateral decision by the papacy. To use eye-rolling icons and to act all huffy as if I’m not accepting the obvious is also strange.

Also, letting on that you think other people are morons is not likely to endear them to Catholicism. I think you include rude icons in almost all of your posts. Shocking as it may seem, people who remain non-Catholics are not always doing so out of some sense of perversity. :rolleyes:
 
Hey Curious Seed, you said:
Catholics are steeped in the indoctrination that their view is the only view that constitutes the Church founded by Christ.
I am fairly certain that the Catholic Church views the Eastern Orthodox Church as possessing roots firmly established in the apostolic age, and therefore founded by Christ, but I am not aware of any protestant Christians claiming that any one Protestant church, in the world today, can make that same claim. Please correct me if I am wrong? 🙂

817 In fact, "in this one and only Church of God from its very beginnings there arose certain rifts, which the Apostle strongly censures as damnable. But in subsequent centuries much more serious dissensions appeared and large communities became separated from full communion with the Catholic Church - for which, often enough, men of both sides were to blame."269 The ruptures that wound the unity of Christ’s Body - here we must distinguish heresy, apostasy, and schism270 - do not occur without human sin:
Code:
Where there are sins, there are also divisions, schisms, heresies, and disputes. Where there is virtue, however, there also are harmony and unity, from which arise the one heart and one soul of all believers.271
818 "However, one cannot charge with the sin of the separation those who at present are born into these communities [that resulted from such separation] and in them are brought up in the faith of Christ, and the Catholic Church accepts them with respect and affection as brothers . . . . All who have been justified by faith in Baptism are incorporated into Christ; they therefore have a right to be called Christians, and with good reason are accepted as brothers in the Lord by the children of the Catholic Church."272

819 "Furthermore, many elements of sanctification and of truth"273 are found outside the visible confines of the Catholic Church: "the written Word of God; the life of grace; faith, hope, and charity, with the other interior gifts of the Holy Spirit, as well as visible elements."274 Christ’s Spirit uses these Churches and ecclesial communities as means of salvation, whose power derives from the fullness of grace and truth that Christ has entrusted to the Catholic Church. All these blessings come from Christ and lead to him,275 and are in themselves calls to “Catholic unity.”
 
Hey Bluegoat, you said:
And if you read carefully the link you gave, we also do not have a unilateral papal decision. The decision to remove Nestorius comes from all the Bishops and laity.
To which church in the world today, did said bishops belong and by whose authority did they remove Nestorius?
 
Hey Bluegoat, you said:

To which church in the world today, did said bishops belong and by whose authority did they remove Nestorius?
You are changing the subject. You can’t just ask another question to distract from the rather poor attemt to suggest that the Pope alone decided that Nestorius was an heretic. In any case, since the discussion is about whether the modern Catholic Church is the same as the “original” Church, we can’t really say without begging the question.

Like this:

A) Is the modern Catholic Church the same Church as the original Church?

B) Well, the modern CC allows the Pope to have complete jurisdiction over the other bishops in other Sees. Did the Pope have that power in the original Church? If not, you have to show that is a valid change.

A) There are example X and example Y.

B) Those were both conciliar decisions.

C) Yeah, but the bishops were Catholic.

You can see here that C is simply asserting as a fact the very question that is being discussed. That is a logical fallacy, which as good, rational Christians we do not want to indulge in
 
Hey Blue, I wonder why Cyril of Alexandria, appealed to Pope Celestine I in the first place, charging Nestorius with heresy, at which point the Pope agreed and gave Cyril his authority to serve a notice to Nestorius to recant his views or else be excommunicated.

I was just hoping for a simple answer to the following, if possible:

To which church, in the world today, did those bishops belong and by whose authority did they remove Nestorius? Or, does that church no longer exist?
You are changing the subject. You can’t just ask another question to distract from the rather poor attemt to suggest that the Pope alone decided that Nestorius was an heretic. In any case, since the discussion is about whether the modern Catholic Church is the same as the “original” Church, we can’t really say without begging the question.

Like this:

A) Is the modern Catholic Church the same Church as the original Church?

B) Well, the modern CC allows the Pope to have complete jurisdiction over the other bishops in other Sees. Did the Pope have that power in the original Church? If not, you have to show that is a valid change.

A) There are example X and example Y.

B) Those were both conciliar decisions.

C) Yeah, but the bishops were Catholic.

You can see here that C is simply asserting as a fact the very question that is being discussed. That is a logical fallacy, which as good, rational Christians we do not want to indulge in
 
Hey Blue, I wonder why both Nestorius, Bishop of Constantinople and Cyril of Alexandria, appealed to Pope Celestine I in the first place?

I was just hoping for a simple answer to the following, if possible:

To which church, in the world today, did those bishops belong and by whose authority did they remove Nestorius? Or, does that church no longer exist?

Also, the Pope is not always the arbiter when matters need to be resolved. Diocesan Bishops can make authoritative decisions without deferring to the Pope first.
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

This may surprise you - but, your consistent negation of early Catholic Church history and refusal to actually state your case with references has become tedious. Ah, but maybe this is considered ‘huffy’. As far as I am concerned, I have responded to your question about the Pope’s authority to consecrate and dipose bishops. You refuse to accept it - but offer nothing to substantiate this except it obviously does not conform to the words you want used to explain a historic fact.

That’s it. Again, either answer my question - ‘huffy’ or other-wise or move on to negate something else that does not conform to your preconceived ideas.

But, notice, I just don’t tell you, “I don’t like that - and refuse to believe.” I give you a reason and references. Try doing the same and tell me why the Pope does not have this power.

God bless
Actually, I have to say more. There is no question that Nestorius was condemned by a council of Bishops. It is totally bizarre to say this was a unilateral decision by the papacy. To use eye-rolling icons and to act all huffy as if I’m not accepting the obvious is also strange.

Also, letting on that you think other people are morons is not likely to endear them to Catholicism. I think you include rude icons in almost all of your posts. Shocking as it may seem, people who remain non-Catholics are not always doing so out of some sense of perversity. :rolleyes:
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

This may surprise you - but, your consistent negation of early Catholic Church history and refusal to actually state your case with references has become tedious. Ah, but maybe this is considered ‘huffy’. As far as I am concerned, I have responded to your question about the Pope’s authority to consecrate and dipose bishops. You refuse to accept it - but offer nothing to substantiate this except it obviously does not conform to the words you want used to explain a historic fact.

That’s it. Again, either answer my question - ‘huffy’ or other-wise or move on to negate something else that does not conform to your preconceived ideas.

But, notice, I just don’t tell you, “I don’t like that - and refuse to believe.” I give you a reason and references. Try doing the same and tell me why the Pope does not have this power.

God bless
Actually, you assert a lot. And I gave you a reason. Those were all conciliar decisions. They are precisely not the kind of example I am looking for. I think that the government of the Church is meant to be conciliar (sort of), so showing me examples of conciliar decisions is not going to be very effective at changing my mind.

I am not sure what kind of evidence you want - should I quote your own examples back at you? They are conciliar because they involve a council of bishops (or apostles in the first example.) This seems self-evident in your own examples. The first involved all the apostles, including Peter but certainly not Peter alone, nor Peter against the others. The second involved the decision of the bishops of the Church, not just of the Pope. From my perspective, the force of the decision comes from the council, not the papacy. That is an interpretation of course, but it is equally an interpretation to say the force of the council comes from the papacy, so the example is not very useful.

Here is the thing - the modern powers and privileges claimed by Rome are new - even Catholic scholars are clear that they are doctrinal development and did not exist in the early, and in some cases the medieval, Church. The East did not accept the claims and refused to follow, and much of the West left as soon as they were able to, all on the same kinds of issues.

So I think it is those who maintain that these privileges are correct that need to give an account. Why should we accept these innovations as real doctrinal development rather than error? (Some might ask why should we accept doctrinal development at all?) Why should we not stick to what we see in the first 700 years of Christian history, a system that still works well in the East?
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

I certainly am not happy about this - it is you who are changing the subject! Yep! :rolleyes: And, I will enbolden the section. Recall, you were all focused on the Pope NOT having the power to appoint and remove bishops … and, now look what you have done!

The Pope did not act alone in deciding Nestorius was a heretic - the Pope acted alone in delegating to Cyril the power to remove this heretical bishop from his office. The entire issue is your denial of the Pope’s authority.
You are changing the subject. You can’t just ask another question to distract from the** rather poor attemt to suggest that the Pope alone decided that Nestorius was an heretic.** In any case, since the discussion is about whether the modern Catholic Church is the same as the “original” Church, we can’t really say without begging the question.

Like this:

A) Is the modern Catholic Church the same Church as the original Church?

B) Well, the modern CC allows the Pope to have complete jurisdiction over the other bishops in other Sees. Did the Pope have that power in the original Church? If not, you have to show that is a valid change.

A) There are example X and example Y.

B) Those were both conciliar decisions.

C) Yeah, but the bishops were Catholic.

You can see here that C is simply asserting as a fact the very question that is being discussed. That is a logical fallacy, which as good, rational Christians we do not want to indulge in
It would appear to me that your view of fpapal decisions are ones taken in total isolation from anyone else. That is not the way it works. In the link I provided it showed that many people tried to work with Nestorius about the error of his teaching. He refused to change his view, so the Pope delegated Cyril to take specific action - and Nestorius was deposed for his refusal to recant.

As I read the post, Joe was simply telling you that there were no other Christian religions around - they were all Catholic - united to the Bishop of Rome - at the time of the Nestorian heresy. This is also during the time of the Early Church Fathers who viewed the Pope as the final authority on disputes.

The ‘logical fallacy’ exists in the way you have constructed the material. Your fallacy lies in part “B” - while the Council identified a lot of problems with Nestorius, it was the Pope who authorized the authorized the Council, approved the decision and actually removed Nestorius as Bishop by the power the Pope gave to Cyril if Nestorius did nto recant.

Here are two links that will provide specific information: catholic.com/library/Authority_of_the_Pope_Part_1.asp

catholic.com/library/Authority_of_the_Pope_Part_2.asp

By the way, Bluegoat, I notice you are consistently offering your own opinion while avoiding actually offering references. In my opinion, now would be a good time to begin.

God bless
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

I certainly am not happy about this - it is you who are changing the subject! Yep! :rolleyes: And, I will enbolden the section. Recall, you were all focused on the Pope NOT having the power to appoint and remove bishops … and, now look what you have done!

The Pope did not act alone in deciding Nestorius was a heretic - the Pope acted alone in delegating to Cyril the power to remove this heretical bishop from his office. The entire issue is your denial of the Pope’s authority.

It would appear to me that your view of fpapal decisions are ones taken in total isolation from anyone else. That is not the way it works. In the link I provided it showed that many people tried to work with Nestorius about the error of his teaching. He refused to change his view, so the Pope delegated Cyril to take specific action - and Nestorius was deposed for his refusal to recant.

As I read the post, Joe was simply telling you that there were no other Christian religions around - they were all Catholic - united to the Bishop of Rome - at the time of the Nestorian heresy. This is also during the time of the Early Church Fathers who viewed the Pope as the final authority on disputes.

The ‘logical fallacy’ exists in the way you have constructed the material. Your fallacy lies in part “B” - while the Council identified a lot of problems with Nestorius, it was the Pope who authorized the authorized the Council, approved the decision and actually removed Nestorius as Bishop by the power the Pope gave to Cyril if Nestorius did nto recant.

Here are two links that will provide specific information: catholic.com/library/Authority_of_the_Pope_Part_1.asp

catholic.com/library/Authority_of_the_Pope_Part_2.asp

By the way, Bluegoat, I notice you are consistently offering your own opinion while avoiding actually offering references. In my opinion, now would be a good time to begin.

God bless
What kind of references would you like? For the most part we are talking about matters of opinion. In this case, Catholic scholars will tend to agree the papacy is legitimate, and non-Catholic ones won’t. You’ve been giving Catholic webpages, is that the kind of thing you want? You realize that the facts are not in dispute here, it is the interpretation that is?

And of course everyone was in communion with Rome - and Rome was in communion with everyone else. That is what it means to have an undivided Church.

I haven’t said the papacy has no legitimate role either - I think they do. Acting on the decision of the council was legitimate, that was very much the appropriate role for the Bishop of Rome, but that does not mean the decision is legitimate *because *the Pope acted on it - rather, the act is legitimate because the decision of the bishops (and the will of the laity too) gave it legitimacy.

We also have examples historically of the council of Bishops acting without the decision of the Pope, or against the decision of the Pope, and that wasn’t seen as illegitimate. I think this tends to support the idea that the legitimacy comes from the decision of all Bishops. But if you could give an example of the papacy making unilateral decisions, then that would tend to support your argument.

I have said that the role claimed by the papacy today - which is different than what was claimed then - is illegitimate. That is why today we have a divided Church, where not all are in Communion with Rome, and Rome is not in communion with all. It was when these illegitimate claims began to be made that the Church became divided, which is logical if they were indeed illegitimate. So it doesn’t help to say that the Church was unified back when papal prerogatives were appropriate - that is what we would expect. Why would anyone break communion with Rome if it was acting the way it should?
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

There really isn’t a lot I can do for you. You insist that my statements are wrong, notwithstanding references provided - and you insist you are right based strictly on your opinion without regard to references. Of course you do not need them … but, in the interest of informing those less fortunate than yourself - humor me with one… 😃
What kind of references would you like? For the most part we are talking about matters of opinion.

We also have examples historically of the council of Bishops acting without the decision of the Pope, or against the decision of the Pope, and that wasn’t seen as illegitimate. I think this tends to support the idea that the legitimacy comes from the decision of all Bishops. But if you could give an example of the papacy making unilateral decisions, then that would tend to support your argument.
QUOTE]

This would be an excellent place for your verifiable references supporting this statement. I eagerly await something other than your opinion. Well… maybe not that eagerly … 😃 … I am going to bed now! But, I will look forward to seeing it in the morning… 🙂

God bless
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

There really isn’t a lot I can do for you. You insist that my statements are wrong, notwithstanding references provided - and you insist you are right based strictly on your opinion without regard to references. Of course you do not need them … but, in the interest of informing those less fortunate than yourself - humor me with one… 😃
Bluegoat;7884654:
What kind of references would you like? For the most part we are talking about matters of opinion.

We also have examples historically of the council of Bishops acting without the decision of the Pope, or against the decision of the Pope, and that wasn’t seen as illegitimate. I think this tends to support the idea that the legitimacy comes from the decision of all Bishops. But if you could give an example of the papacy making unilateral decisions, then that would tend to support your argument.
QUOTE]

This would be an excellent place for your verifiable references supporting this statement. I eagerly await something other than your opinion. Well… maybe not that eagerly … 😃 … I am going to bed now! But, I will look forward to seeing it in the morning… 🙂

God bless
Sure - the council of Jerusalem is a good example, where they over-ride Peter decision regarding Jewish practices. (found in acts if you want to look it up.;))

The 5th ecumenical council is an example, where the council of the bishops decided differently than the Pope, and so he changed his decision. Here is an account by the Catholic Encyclopedia. They tend too gloss over the fact that the council felt free to disregard the papal decision, but you can see that is in fact what happened.

Interestingly, in the case of the Nestorian controversy, which you brought up, the bishops accepted the Pope’s analysis because it agreed with Tradition, and in fact set themselves up to judge his analysis. That is, he wrote his decision and presented it to the council, and they made a decision about whether to accept it.

Here is a wiki excerpt, but you can find a description of the events in any good Church history - it is not a controversial account of events:

*"At the Second Council of Ephesus in 449 AD, Leo’s representatives delivered his famous Tome (Latin text, a letter), or statement of the faith of the Roman Church in the form of a letter addressed to Archbishop Flavian of Constantinople, which repeats, in close adherence to Augustine, the formulas of western Christology, without really touching the problem that was agitating the East. The council did not read the letter, and paid no attention to the protests of Leo’s legates, but deposed Flavian and Eusebius, who appealed to Rome.

It was presented again at the subsequent Council of Chalcedon as offering a solution to the Christological controversies still raging between East and West. This time it was read out. The bishops responded by saying “Peter has spoken,”[citation needed] and most of them accepted the Tome as broadly following the teaching of Cyril of Alexandria. See the canons of the Council itself for this (10 October session)."*

These together, along with a complete lack of unilateral decision making, tends to suggest to me that decision making was understood to be conciliar. It is when we see Rome start to deny that it so that there is real schism from all the other patriarchs, and then later from the Protestant reformers as the further effects of this leadership model became apparent.
 
Blue Goat

I think your ameba analogy is likely the best argument for the protestant faith. Indeed, I think this issue is more of a spectrum. How far does the church extend? I don’t think we know that. It is perfectly acceptable for a Catholic to believe that the Holy Spirit is present and guiding protestant denominations in their communities. We don’t think they are “churches” because we think there is only one church (currently in schism).

I think certain Catholics go a little bit overboard when they try to explain too precisely how the Holy Spirit works. So whereas in the first Church councils (including the one in the book of acts) it appeared that several church leaders needed to agree to define doctrine whose truth is ensured by the Holy Spirit we now, over a century later are taught that this is not the case. We are now taught by Vatican I that if the Bishop of Rome states certain things as a preface then what follows will be ensured infallible by the Holy Spirit.

Well I’m not saying that anyone necessarily denied this before, but it definitely seems a new modus operandi for the church. In the first 1800 years people could believe or not, in the immaculate conception. They might also believe, like St. John Chrysostom, that the gospel seems to contain minor contradictions. But after 1800 years by way of “clarified understandings” of the importance of Papal pronouncements we now must believe in the immaculate conception and deny even minor/meaningless inaccuracies to the same extent as if this were part of the Nicene Creed.

I guess I have to say I have my doubts that anyone really knows with this sort of precision exactly how the Holy Spirit safeguards the Church and leads us to salvation. But I include myself in that group of the ignorant so I certainly cannot say the Holy Spirit does not guide the church just as described by Vatican I.

But even if I did become convinced of that it would never lead me to say I am going to break from the church. The church may kick me out but I’m not leaving willingly. That just seems the height of irrationality.

I think Luther pretty clearly rejected the only thing that could be considered the church as it existed at his time and formed his own. He may not have admitted that but historically it’s hard to believe otherwise.
….
I have never understood why people would try to argue that the Reformers thought they were starting something new. It seems to me it is a matter of mixing up the Reformers and their decedents with some modern branches that are rather further removed.

….
Here I think you are stretching things a bit. Sure the reformers did not claim “hey join our new start up church that I myself just created.” Nevertheless, they knew they were starting new. They had to reach agreements about how their liturgy would work, what sorts of art, if any, would be in their new reformed churches, how they would teach about the Eucharist, what requirements there would be for priests, how would they be appointed, how would one be saved etc. etc. These were issues/arguments that happened and sometimes caused a real fracturing within Protestantism.

I think contrasting the creation of protestant churches, with the schism with Catholics and Orthodox, really highlights how the protestant church was the creation of a new church. When there was the Schism with Orthodox it’s not like the orthodox had to decide/argue about how they would now do things . They basically did things the same as before the schism.
….
You can read Luther through his whole life and see that he is clearly in a tradition of Christian, and specifically Augustinian thought. ….To use a different analogy, you may think the branch diseased, but it still grew from the trunk.
Similarly there were reformers who emphasized different aspects of the faith who remained in the church. The Franciscans are an example. But Luther not only did his own interpretation and emphasis but specifically and deliberately rejected the only identifiable Church as he knew it.

Martin Luther wrote: “We here are of the conviction that the papacy is the seat of the true and real Antichrist…” (Aug. 18, 1520) Taken from The Prophetic Faith of Our Fathers, Vol. 2., pg. 121 by Froom.

Again consider this in comparison to the east west schism. The Bishop of Rome did not say the Bishopric of Constantinople was “the seat of the anti-christ” and vice versa. Yes they may have argued that particular people were bad, but Luther’s attack is on the actual structure of the church. That there was and should be a Bishop in Rome with some authority was understood and agreed for at least 1350 years right?
Hopefully you would agree that the ancient church did not view the Bishop of Rome as the seat of the anti-Christ. So then, since Luther says it was as of 1520 (and some Lutherans still maintain this) then when did this become the case?

Assuming a protestant would deny Peter was the first Pope, would say Clement also have taken the seat of the anti-Christ?

I have heard arguments that based on Foxes Book of Martyrs it seems one early protestant position was that the church was pure until it actually held secular power. (around the time of Constantine?) Then it started persecuting the “true church” – that is those who were considered heretics. From what I understand though at least some of these “martyrs” would have been considered heretics by most Protestant groups as well.

After reviewing the history I believe protestant’s would have to maintain that the church at the very least “lapsed” at some point. But Scripture says it will always be guided by God.
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

Thank you for your response and references. 🙂

This is honestly a complex issue and one that has taken me time and prayer to develop in my own mind. If anyone has a problem with this - sing out… 😃 here goes:

Christ left very few, what we would consider, ‘instructions’ for how His Church was to operate. We have Matt 16:18 where Christ founds His Chruch on Peter, gives him binding and losing authority and the Keys to signify his authority over the Eleven (the First Bishops of the Catholic Church). And, then we have Christ apparently telling the Twelve that whatever they bind will be bound in Heaven (Matt 18:18) Note: there is no account of eleven other sets of keys being given out - so there is a uniqueness to Peter’s role, but all of the Apostles have a new authority. Christ then suffers, dies, is burried, raises on the third day and is on earth for another 40 days before ascending into heaven. We do not know what He did or taught during this time, but the Apostles were witnesses and John says twice that not everything was written down (Chapters 20 & 21). Then comes Pentecost - and the Holy Spirit provided all of these wonderful Gifts to each of the members present in the room … but, there were two things not provided by the Holy Spirit. He did not deliver any books (the completed Bible) nor a Policy and Procedure Manual. He really didn’t.

Way back in the beginning of the OT Genesis accounts, God chooses to introduce Himself gradually to His Chosen People. The emphasis at that time was One God - period. Fast forward to the NT and we see that there is only One God - but, look we have Three co-equal and distinct Persons. It could be argued that God could have done this in the OT and we would have the entire story the first time out. But, He didn’t. God chose another way - the development of theology is in progress.

The Council of Jerusalem you cite as your first example provides some insight into this developmental process. A summary would be: the Judiazers began a controversy that shook the early Catholic Church - a council was called and the matter debated, Peter rises and resolves the matter: no longer is circumcision required, nor is following the Law of Moses (now, we are talking above over 600 laws!). James rises and makes his thoughts known about certain Jewish laws he want followed in his See. But, note: he does not impose circumcision which was the heart of the controversy with the Judiazers. So, I would see Peter as having made the decision to end circumcision as an entry requirement into the Church of Christ. I gather you do not.

Your second example of the 5th ecumenical council has a similar type of path. Here is quote from the last paragraph:
“Pope Virgilius, who had at first expressed a contrary opinion, and for that reason was attacked by Justinian, ended by sanctioning the decisions of the council.”

The first idea is that opinions are not defined dogmas. Pope Virgilius was not speaking from the Chair of Peter - in an infallible manner. He was expressing an opinion. Contrast this with the condemnation of of Nestorius for not being in conformity with the teaching of the Catholic Church that Mary is the Mother of God. Opinions change - dogma doesn’t.

The fact that there was a council and decisions were made is a historical fact, but really besides the point. It is the bishops in union with Successor of Peter that make up the Magisterium - the teaching authority of the Church. Both must be present to have dogma. If I understand your position correctly, the council is the one who made the real decisions and the Pope went along for the ride and played no significant role in the process. There is a role for the Council (beginning with the Council of Jerusalem) and a role for the Pope in the formulation of official teaching.

The practical example for Nestorius was that he was claiming that Christ was not God - and I think most Protestants would side with the Catholic position and teaching from the 5th Century that Christ is true God and true man. If this is so, than Mary is indeed the Mother of God. Nestorius could not handle this - and was condemned as a heretic by the Pope through his agent St. Cyril. Your citation identified that some did not like the way Cyril performed his duties. Well, that did not invalidate what he did.

As I see it, we are looking at the development of the Catholic Church through a truly remarkable paper trail.

God bless
Sure - the council of Jerusalem is a good example, where they over-ride Peter decision regarding Jewish practices. (found in acts if you want to look it up.;))

The 5th ecumenical council is an example, where the council of the bishops decided differently than the Pope, and so he changed his decision.
 

The fact that there was a council and decisions were made is a historical fact, but really besides the point. It is the bishops in union with Successor of Peter that make up the Magisterium - the teaching authority of the Church. Both must be present to have dogma. If I understand your position correctly, the council is the one who made the real decisions and the Pope went along for the ride and played no significant role in the process. There is a role for the Council (beginning with the Council of Jerusalem) and a role for the Pope in the formulation of official teaching. …

As I see it, we are looking at the development of the Catholic Church through a truly remarkable paper trail.

God bless
I wouldn’t say there was no role for the Pope - there was, even apart from his membership of the council, but it does not seem to be what the role is today. So yes, there is a role for both.

But the question is - what if the two disagree? Can the Pope override the bishops decisions? Can they act without him? Is he protected from error? Are the Bishops? The Church?

You seem to be saying that you think it was both the Pope and council, but really that is not what your argument comes to when we see a split. You seem to be saying that once we see schism with the Eastern patriarchs and bishops, or of the Western bishops, we always know that the Pope is in the right by virtue of the nature of the papacy. What this does is it makes the agreement of the council of bishops irrelevant. In your model we do not need council and Pope, or in the schism you could not say the Pope has to be on the correct side.

But I don’t see any evidence that the pre-schism Church operated that way, and even Catholic scholarship agrees that it is a development. Resting it on a few Scriptural verses about the keys etc is not enough, as they can be understood to mean a variety of things besides absolute papal supremacy.
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

What we need to recall is that not all of the bishops in a council voted for a particular item that was basically later identified as being part of the Deposit of Faith. Those who were not in favor of the idea need to make the necessary adjustments. Failure to do so puts one in the same category as Nestorius and other heretics. Not all of the bishops abandoned the Pope when he decided a particular matter - those that remain faithful to the Pope are part of the Magisterium - those who abandon him aren’t. God the Father selected Peter to give him the answer to Christ’s question and Christ called Peter the Rock for a reason (Matt 16:18). It is really a matter of Faith.

Now, your question about what happens if there is disagreement and conflict and how are things resolved? To me this is the proof of the pudding - if the Catholic Church were simply a human organization or some time of multi-national corporation headquartered in Rome - it would have imploded a long time ago! :eek: But, look what happened when even publicly sinful men occupied the Chair of Peter… yes, there was public scandal - but, at no time was error taught. By this I mean that from the very beginning the Catholic Church has taught and continues to teach that:

Baptism is necessary for salvation
The priest has the delegated power of God to forgive (or retain) confessed sin
The Eucharist is really the Body, Blood, Human Soul and Divinity of Jesus Christ
The Church is really the pillar and bulwark of truth (1Tim 3:14)
Peter is the Rock on which Christ founded His Church

The Protestant revolt threw all of this out - they could not abide such doctrines. They decided that they would craft their own. But, you know, from the 1st Century on there have been those who have determined that they had the power to create doctirne (e.g.,the Judiazers) and they did so. The problem is that it did not last. For those who insisted that the traditons of men were to be kept - their organization splintered and splintered so that individuals who founded particular denominations in Protestantism would hardly recognize their chruches today! For example, Luther and Calvin were consistent in their reverance for the Blessed Virgin Mary - and defended the doctrine of her perpetual virginity during their lifetimes. For many Protestants, this is nto the case today.

God bless
I wouldn’t say there was no role for the Pope - there was, even apart from his membership of the council, but it does not seem to be what the role is today. So yes, there is a role for both.

But the question is - what if the two disagree? Can the Pope override the bishops decisions? Can they act without him? Is he protected from error? Are the Bishops? The Church?

You seem to be saying that you think it was both the Pope and council, but really that is not what your argument comes to when we see a split. You seem to be saying that once we see schism with the Eastern patriarchs and bishops, or of the Western bishops, we always know that the Pope is in the right by virtue of the nature of the papacy. What this does is it makes the agreement of the council of bishops irrelevant. In your model we do not need council and Pope, or in the schism you could not say the Pope has to be on the correct side.

But I don’t see any evidence that the pre-schism Church operated that way, and even Catholic scholarship agrees that it is a development. Resting it on a few Scriptural verses about the keys etc is not enough, as they can be understood to mean a variety of things besides absolute papal supremacy.
 
Hi, Bluegoat,

What we need to recall is that not all of the bishops in a council voted for a particular item that was basically later identified as being part of the Deposit of Faith. Those who were not in favor of the idea need to make the necessary adjustments. Failure to do so puts one in the same category as Nestorius and other heretics. Not all of the bishops abandoned the Pope when he decided a particular matter - those that remain faithful to the Pope are part of the Magisterium - those who abandon him aren’t. God the Father selected Peter to give him the answer to Christ’s question and Christ called Peter the Rock for a reason (Matt 16:18). It is really a matter of Faith.
So you are saying that you have no clear argument - I want to say proof but I don’t mean anything so definite - that it was the other bishops and Patriarchs who erred and not the Pope? As a matter of faith, based on a particular interpretation of a few Scriptural passages, you affirm that is the case?

I have no problem with that, but those Scriptural passages, and the history, are by no means a slam dunk. Many people, by faith, and good arguments on their side, would say the patriarchs and bishops were in the right.

If on both sides it is a matter of faith, I don’t see how one can argue vehemently that it is a clear and obvious point that the modern papacy has the correct model of church leadership.
Now, your question about what happens if there is disagreement and conflict and how are things resolved? To me this is the proof of the pudding - if the Catholic Church were simply a human organization or some time of multi-national corporation headquartered in Rome - it would have imploded a long time ago! :eek: But, look what happened when even publicly sinful men occupied the Chair of Peter… yes, there was public scandal - but, at no time was error taught.
I don’t really buy this argument. I have heard the same argument by modern Jews, and one could equally apply it to Buddhists, or Zoroastrians, or Hindus. And one might argue that the Catholic Church is not so clearly intact - it has been full of revolutions and difficult periods since the schism, there was the Reformation, there is the modern Catholic liturgy which is very lacking, and many many Catholics do not really believe in most of the Catholic teachings. I’m not sure I would take this tack in the discussion, but it seems to me that it is unclear that the Catholic Church is not in real trouble.
By this I mean that from the very beginning the Catholic Church has taught and continues to teach that:
Baptism is necessary for salvation
The priest has the delegated power of God to forgive (or retain) confessed sin
The Eucharist is really the Body, Blood, Human Soul and Divinity of Jesus Christ
The Church is really the pillar and bulwark of truth (1Tim 3:14)
Peter is the Rock on which Christ founded His Church
The Protestant revolt threw all of this out - they could not abide such doctrines. They decided that they would craft their own. But, you know, from the 1st Century on there have been those who have determined that they had the power to create doctirne (e.g.,the Judiazers) and they did so. The problem is that it did not last. For those who insisted that the traditons of men were to be kept - their organization splintered and splintered so that individuals who founded particular denominations in Protestantism would hardly recognize their chruches today! For example, Luther and Calvin were consistent in their reverance for the Blessed Virgin Mary - and defended the doctrine of her perpetual virginity during their lifetimes. For many Protestants, this is nto the case today.
God bless
THere are a few problems with this. First, you are assuming that certain very controversial Catholic doctrines are correct, like the place of Peter. But as I said at the top - this seems to be a matter with no slam dunk argument. You are assuming that is what is meant by Peter being the Rock, whereas there are in fact a variety of interpretations, even in the first 1000 years of Christianity. In fact, this point is really the substance of what we are discussing, so you can’t assume your interpretation is true without begging the question.

Secondly, your list has many items that a large portion of Protestants would accept including the Reformers, and certainly the Orthodox would. But none of them take the Catholic position.

And thirdly, you have to be careful saying that the ideas of the first Reformers lead to further splintering because their doctrines were incorrect. THat could be true, but you have to show that it is so. The Orthodox sometimes make the same argument about Catholicism - they say they can see it was in the wrong in the schism because it lead to further splintering. Now, I am guessing you would not accept that argument unless they somehow show how the Catholic position specifically led to splintering. So I think you also have to do this for the early forms of Protestantism if you want to make that argument.
 
Hey Bluegoat, you said:
THere are a few problems with this. First, you are assuming that certain very controversial Catholic doctrines are correct, like the place of Peter. But as I said at the top - this seems to be a matter with no slam dunk argument. You are assuming that is what is meant by Peter being the Rock, whereas there are in fact a variety of interpretations, even in the first 1000 years of Christianity. In fact, this point is really the substance of what we are discussing, so you can’t assume your interpretation is true without begging the question.
A little help? I have researched what the early church fathers (and those after them for the first 1000 years) - believed vis-a-vis the interpretation of Matthew 16:18, as best I could. Could you maybe show me an example or two where these early church fathers (or those that followed them) - embraced Peter’s confession exclusively, while at the same time never claiming that Peter himself was the rock on which Jesus built His church? That would help quite a bit.

As far as those ECF’s claiming that the church is built on Jesus, well, that of course goes without saying. All catholics believe that to be true!

If you find this topic irrelevant to the thread then could you PM me those quotes? Thanks Blue…🙂
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top