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adstrinity
Guest
Do you believe it was possible for Her, and did She infact, sin, while pregnant with Jesus?
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Justy90
Guest
Not sure if she did during that time. Nothing says that she didn’t.
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Lutheranteach
Guest
This had never crossed my mind, not that I don’t think she could have, or would have, but it’s never crossed my mind as at all relevant. That’s not to make light of the question, but I think mine is a rather protestant attitude. You could just as well be asking me if she were left or right handed, as my focus is on what she accomplished, brought forth, etc.
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shawn38
Guest
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adstrinity
Guest
Please start a new thread with that, thank you.
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unacanta
Guest
The very fact you are using Capitalized “She” and “Her” reveal you consider her God. Capitalization of pronouns is a reference to God.
Una
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RHC
Guest
On the contrary, it is a sign of respect for Mary, whom we all agree was the Mother of our Lord. She is important because of Christ; everything about Mary points to the Lord. She always leads us to the Messiah. This is Catholic dogma.
Catholics do not consider the Virgin Mary to be divine, nor has any orthodox Catholic authority ever claimed She is/was; this is backed up by Scripture, the Catechism, and dogma. Capitalization (or lack thereof) is not a proof-text for asserting otherwise.
Now…back to the original topic - I am interested to hear the responses.
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adstrinity
Guest
Do not attempt to derail the thread. Please, give me your take on the topic.
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rev_kevin
Guest
Impossible to answer. It could go eather way. We just don’t know.
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KathleenGee
Guest
Well, the whole point about Jesus Christ is that He was coming to save us from sin, to lead us to a new life…
Mary was blessed of all women, and since the whole concept was that Jesus was now the acceptable Lamb for the remission of sins to the Father, we can safely assume that Mary was of the same genre…in that she was conceived without sin…
And to be without sin she has a different constitution than us…that is mystery to us…but she is our greatest advocate at the time of our death…
I ‘met’ her overseas among the poor…and when I came home, it took me 7 years to finally be able to discern her most subtle presence in my life as she wants the glory only for Our Lord…
Mary was blessed of all women, and since the whole concept was that Jesus was now the acceptable Lamb for the remission of sins to the Father, we can safely assume that Mary was of the same genre…in that she was conceived without sin…
And to be without sin she has a different constitution than us…that is mystery to us…but she is our greatest advocate at the time of our death…
I ‘met’ her overseas among the poor…and when I came home, it took me 7 years to finally be able to discern her most subtle presence in my life as she wants the glory only for Our Lord…
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Gracielaug
Guest
The dogma of the Immaculate Conception teaches us that Mary was concieved without original sin, and all during her life had no tendency to sin. Her will and her intelligence were able to focus on good and truth fully, so she always did the will of God. Whoever does the will of God… does not sin!
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adstrinity
Guest
Since it could go either way, please answer, in both ways, please.
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mike52ad
Guest
What also makes Mary so special is that she was born without the stain of original sin. This was done by God as a favor to her at the moment of her natural conception in anticipation of the death and resurrection of Jesus. Remember, God does not live in, nor is he limited by the dimensions of time and space. God is All in All. Scriptural evidence can be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary when she was asked to be the Mother of God:
“Hail Mary, Full of Grace…”
is what the angel said to her. How could she be full of grace, as Christ had not yet died? Again, nothing in Scripture is there without purpose. The angel called her full of grace simply because she was full of grace. She had within her God’s sanctifying grace from the very start of her existence when her father’s sperm met her mother’s egg and she began life. This favor of God is called the Immaculate Conception. The angel was not delivering the gift to Mary; she had had the gift since her conception in the womb.
But what about Romans 3:23
“…all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God… “
The Catechism of the Catholic Church says (emphasis added) :
Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, “full of grace” through God, was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:
The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin.
The “splendor of an entirely unique holiness” by which Mary is “enriched from the first instant of her conception” comes wholly from Christ: she is “redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son”. The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person “in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places” and chose her “in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love”. The soul of Mary from the very instant of her creation was preserved from original sin. She therefore was in a state of grace and although she had free will, her will was turned toward God at all times. Her “yes” to the angel could just as easily been a “no.” Mary occupies a most special place in the history of salvation. She was the one who said “yes” to nullify the “no” of Adam and Eve. She was preserved from original sin and the effects of it.
Due to the favor of God, Mary did not have the stain of original sin to deal with. Her natural inclination would be toward the will of God as opposed to us that have to deal with original sin, our inclination is away from God. Since she had the inclination to good, she would not have sinned. I am not an apologist so my explanation may be weak, but I would urge anyone who is interested to look to the Catecism of the Catholic Church for much more authoritative words. Peace to all.
“Hail Mary, Full of Grace…”
is what the angel said to her. How could she be full of grace, as Christ had not yet died? Again, nothing in Scripture is there without purpose. The angel called her full of grace simply because she was full of grace. She had within her God’s sanctifying grace from the very start of her existence when her father’s sperm met her mother’s egg and she began life. This favor of God is called the Immaculate Conception. The angel was not delivering the gift to Mary; she had had the gift since her conception in the womb.
But what about Romans 3:23
“…all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God… “
The Catechism of the Catholic Church says (emphasis added) :
Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, “full of grace” through God, was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:
The most Blessed Virgin Mary was, from the first moment of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege of almighty God and by virtue of the merits of Jesus Christ, Savior of the human race, preserved immune from all stain of original sin.
The “splendor of an entirely unique holiness” by which Mary is “enriched from the first instant of her conception” comes wholly from Christ: she is “redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son”. The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person “in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places” and chose her “in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love”. The soul of Mary from the very instant of her creation was preserved from original sin. She therefore was in a state of grace and although she had free will, her will was turned toward God at all times. Her “yes” to the angel could just as easily been a “no.” Mary occupies a most special place in the history of salvation. She was the one who said “yes” to nullify the “no” of Adam and Eve. She was preserved from original sin and the effects of it.
Due to the favor of God, Mary did not have the stain of original sin to deal with. Her natural inclination would be toward the will of God as opposed to us that have to deal with original sin, our inclination is away from God. Since she had the inclination to good, she would not have sinned. I am not an apologist so my explanation may be weak, but I would urge anyone who is interested to look to the Catecism of the Catholic Church for much more authoritative words. Peace to all.
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lome
Guest
Mary The Mother of God can’t have a stain of sin.She is the woman promised in Gen:3:15,
the woman with 12 stars on her head,and cloth with the sun,in the Apocalypse
How can a Mother of God be sinful? Satan never had a chance with her for God protected her and hid her.Mary the mother of Jesus never knew sin,lthought she is not capable of
offending God ,she didn’t know it. ( revelation to a saint)
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Lutheranteach
Guest
Which leads to the problem…does that mean Mary’s mother was also without sin, and her mother, and her mother, and her mother, and her mother…How many generations of immaculate conceptions does it take? Also, this part: The Catechism of the Catholic Church says… is all but meaningless to any protestant.
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LindaSK
Guest
I am now Catholic, but spent most of my life as a Protestant. No, I do not, or never did, believe it was possible. The way the question is phrased, “and did She in fact, sin,” leads me to believe you have a particular deed done by Mary, “while pregnant with Jesus.” in your mind that you perceive to be sinful. What might that be?
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adstrinity
Guest
I used to think like you, but, that’s what makes the IC so special, God stepped in to preserve Mary from sin JUST for Him. Mary could have a mother that had the stain of original sin, Mary isn’t our Saviour.
And, one must love a thread with “PROTESTANTS” in the title, so I can get your views on this is over half replied to by Catholics.
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Lutheranteach
Guest
Than there was no need, if Mary could be spared from original sin and not her mother, than wouldn’t the same be true of Jesus? Is so, there is no reason for Mary to have been immaculately conceived?
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MartinJordan
Guest
Luther believed in her sinlessness, which Luther church do you belong to? 
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adstrinity
Guest
You have come to a wrong conclusion. Your zeal should be commended, though.
God is perfect, He could not live in sin. He simply could not dwell where sin abounded…but, most Protestants do not believe this way, as you have demonstrated, SO…could Mary have sinned with Jesus gestating?
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