Sir, Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant.
no, that is just something that some people read into scripture…Luke didn’t beat around the bush and merely give hints that John the Baptist should be seen as Elijah. He flat out said it. ….but supposedly, regarding seeing Mary as the Ark, he resorts to a subtle code.
This ark was so pure that it couldn’t be touched by a sinful man, as it was designed not to be touched (Ex 25:10-22), is reiterated that people will die if they touch it (Numbers 4:15), and as Uzzah died touching it (2 Sam 6:1-9). But the New Ark is not just an object, but a person: Mary. And she is more pure than the Old Ark because Hebrew 10:1 tells us that the Old law is “only a shadow of the good things to come.” This shines a light to the fact that Mary will be free from the ill of sin in order to be worthy to carry Christ in her womb.
your parallel falls apart…the old ark was pure, but Mary was rendered unclean by her monthly period….the old ark couldn’t be touched w/o killing the toucher, but Mary could be touched w/o consequence.
The Old Ark was overshadowed by a cloud which is the Holy Spirit in Ex: 40:32-38. With Mary: "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the Power of the Most High will overshadow you. Therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God. (Luke 1:35). When the Old Ark was being carried into Jerusalem, David “leapt and danced” before it (2 Sam 6:14-16). As soon as Elizabeth heard the sound of Mary’s salutation, John the Baptist “leaped for joy” in her womb (Luke 1:41-44). When God shows his Power in the Old Ark, David asks, “How can the ark of the Lord come to me”?(2 Sam 6:9). When Elizabeth realizes Mary is carrying Jesus in her womb, she asks “Why is this granted me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?” (Luke 1:43). The Old Ark remained in the house of Obededom for 3 months (2 Sam 6:11). Likewise, “Mary remained with her (Elizabeth) about 3 months and then returned to her home.” (Luke 1:56).
you are fudging the passages to make connections:
A. Your first is a comparison of Exodus 40:34-35 to Luke 1:35. In the one case a cloud covered the Tent of Meeting which housed the ark and in the other case Mary was overshadowed by the power of God. The ark doesn’t even get mentioned in the first instance. When the correspondence is cloud <=> Holy Spirit and unmentioned Ark (as opposed to the mentioned Tent) <=> Mary the correspondence strikes me as being manufactured
B. David danced and leaped as the ark was moved to Jerusalem. John, leaped inside Elizabeth’s womb. These are considerably different movements and the mere use of “leaped” in both cases does not make a connection. Further, if any connection is to be made it would be the Jesus-Ark connection for 2 Sam twice specifies that David danced in front of the LORD.
C. Luke 1:43 reads: And whence is this to me that the mother of my Lord should come to me? 2 Sam 6:9 reads: And David was afraid of the Lord that day, saying: How shall the ark of the Lord come to me? And he would not have the ark of the Lord brought in to himself into the city of David… David and Elizabeth really ask two totally different things. Elizabeth’s question is an expression about an honour. She wonders why she should be blessed with the presence of the mother of her Lord. David’s question is one of dread. He is afraid and wonders how he can possibly transport the ark…and ends up not wanting the ark brought to him in Jerusalem. These near opposites do not make a connection.
- What achievements do we give them that they don’t possess?
see the Catholic Marian beliefs
By your logic, time spent honoring Martin Luther King Jr. for his life achievements and untimely death is wrong because it could be time spent worshipping Christ.
a day here and there is no big deal…is that all Catholics do regarding Mary?…a day or so a year honoring her contribution in giving birth to Christ? If so, then that seems quite sensible
- What Church came before the Catholic Church?
the catholic (note the small “c”) Church that didn’t believe in all this extra stuff about Mary and about transubstantiation and about Papal infallibility etc.
- If transubstantiation wasn’t taught until the 4th century, what is John 6 all about?
primarily it is about
belief that Jesus came from the Father …posts 42-45
And why did so many people stop following Him after He gave this sermon? If it were symbolic then surely he would have called these men back and told them so when they began to leave.
see the link
- A person can be a renowned scholar and still be wrong.
agreed, but you are saying that there isn’t even a solid argument against your claim.
You bring up Mormons, well I’ll use them, … I’m sure their scholars a renowned, but that doesn’t make them correct.
there are indeed renowned Mormon scholars, but I don’t think that there is one renowned Mormon historian who has gained a good reputation through a process that saw him put forward (for peer review) a history particular to conservative Mormonism. (that Lehi and his family left Jerusalem, wandered through the wilderness and sailed to the Americas where they founded vast civilizations with a decidedly Semitic cultural flavour). The Mormon scholar realizes that only devote Mormons take such a “history” seriously….everyone else dismisses it. That should set off alarms. You seem to think that there is no sound argument against your claims, but what we find is renowned scholars, specialists in the area in question, who have gained their good reputations (in part) through a process that saw them put forward (for peer review) a history that contradicts your claims. That should set off alarm bells in your head. For example, regarding your claim about transubstantiation, experts in that matter peg the introduction of the belief in a real somatic presence at the 4th century Antiochene school. Some Catholic biographers of Augustine conclude that he did not hold to a real bodily presence. You probably think that Newman’s famous dictum is sound, but the mere existence of so very many renowned conservative Christian historians gives the lie to that dictum.
Lastly, which Church brought us the Bible? Not wrote it, but put it together.
that job was about complete by the end of the second century….apart from tightening up the loose fringes.
You yourself rely on the New Testament that was decided by a few Catholic councils.
those councils were local and not particularly significant…they ratified what had already been established by practice.
You trust the Holy Spirit working through the Church to create an infallible canon, but why not now?
technically, I don’t view the canon as being infallibly set….if a “dead sea scroll” site was found for early Christian works, I wouldn’t be adverse to revisiting the books to be included in the NT
- I’m not fighting with you. We are having a discussion. Please refrain from “are you kidding???” or “wake up and smell the coffee.” You are better than that.
it is my way of expressing my incredulity during a discussion, but I’ll try to refrain from expressing it…just know that it is often there
