N
Nov1411
Guest
I was just wondering why it goes from verse 24 to verse 35, then to verse 25? I thought it might have been a typo, but I found that in 3 different Bibles. Is there a reason for this?
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V
Verbum
Guest
HI, Nov,
In my Bible de Jérusalem, there is no such interruption. But the Greek and the Hebrew don’t always jive together. Perhaps the Bibles you have follow the Greek numbering, while keeping the Hebrew order.
Verbum
In my Bible de Jérusalem, there is no such interruption. But the Greek and the Hebrew don’t always jive together. Perhaps the Bibles you have follow the Greek numbering, while keeping the Hebrew order.
Verbum
T
Todd_Easton
Guest
In the Preface to the New American Bible: Old Testament it says:
In some instances in the Book of Job, in Proverbs, Sirach, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Hosea, Amos, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, and Zechariah there is good reason to believe that the original order of lines was accidentally disturbed in the transmission of the text. The verse numbers given in such cases are always those of the current Hebrew text, though the arrangement differs. In these instances the textual notes advise the reader of the difficulty. Cases of exceptional dislocation are called to the reader’s attention by footnotes.
Unfortunately, in this case, there is no textual note nor footnote to explain specifically why verse 35 was relocated between verse 24 and verse 25.
In some instances in the Book of Job, in Proverbs, Sirach, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Hosea, Amos, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, and Zechariah there is good reason to believe that the original order of lines was accidentally disturbed in the transmission of the text. The verse numbers given in such cases are always those of the current Hebrew text, though the arrangement differs. In these instances the textual notes advise the reader of the difficulty. Cases of exceptional dislocation are called to the reader’s attention by footnotes.
Unfortunately, in this case, there is no textual note nor footnote to explain specifically why verse 35 was relocated between verse 24 and verse 25.
N
Nov1411
Guest
Interesting. So if I were writing down chapter 3, would I write verse 35 after verse 24 or after verse 34?In the Preface to the New American Bible: Old Testament it says:
In some instances in the Book of Job, in Proverbs, Sirach, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Hosea, Amos, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, and Zechariah there is good reason to believe that the original order of lines was accidentally disturbed in the transmission of the text. The verse numbers given in such cases are always those of the current Hebrew text, though the arrangement differs. In these instances the textual notes advise the reader of the difficulty. Cases of exceptional dislocation are called to the reader’s attention by footnotes.
Unfortunately, in this case, there is no textual note nor footnote to explain specifically why verse 35 was relocated between verse 24 and verse 25.
T
Todd_Easton
Guest
Apparently, either place is acceptable. The English-language New American Bible at vatican.va has it after verse 24 and the Latin-language Nova Vulgata at vatican.va has it after verse 34.Interesting. So if I were writing down chapter 3, would I write verse 35 after verse 24 or after verse 34?
M
mccorm45
Guest
The recently released NAB Revised Edition (2011) does not make this change. It goes from verse 24 to 25, through 35, with no changing of order.I was just wondering why it goes from verse 24 to verse 35, then to verse 25? I thought it might have been a typo, but I found that in 3 different Bibles. Is there a reason for this?
N
Nov1411
Guest
That’s interesting. Thanks!Apparently, either place is acceptable. The English-language New American Bible at vatican.va has it after verse 24 and the Latin-language Nova Vulgata at vatican.va has it after verse 34.
N
Nov1411
Guest
Cool, thanks!The recently released NAB Revised Edition (2011) does not make this change. It goes from verse 24 to 25, through 35, with no changing of order.
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