M
Melkite_Sword
Guest
assuming someone converts from a former sinful way of life and one of the sins they used to commit was getting drunk. When ever they were with a group of friends and there was alcohol they would get drunk (before conversion), this would be a proximate occasion of sin for him before the conversion. If after the conversion he realises that getting drunk was a mortal sin and was thus much much less likely to get drunk when around alcohol (to the point where he doesn’t think it presents a serious danger to him), based on the definition of a proximate occasion of sin as “one in which experience points to the same result from the special weakness of a particular person.” (New Advent), would this still be a proximate occasion of sin for the individual even though there is a very low probability of getting drunk if around alcohol again?