R
Reid
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What is the theological importance of the Perpetual Virginity of Mary?
The importance of Mary’s perpetual virginity is discussed in the relevant sections of the Catechism of the Catholic Church. But, in brief, Mary is the spouse of the Holy Spirit (remember that Jesus is conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit) and so for her to have sex with anyone else would have been adultery or fornication. Her virginity is a symbol of her purity and undefilement, and ties into the dogma of the Immaculate Conception and also the typology of the Ark of the Covenant.
Many Christians do not believe that Mary is ever-virgin. They feel that this would downgrade sex in marriage. But in reality, Mary’s virginity was part of her unique role in the salvation of the world. Mary was spiritually perfect, and her body was to reflect this perfection. God miraculously preserved her virginity when she gave birth to Christ to keep her pure and undefiled.
In the reply I provided from another source, I agree that that part of the answer was worded badly. It would probably be better to say that since she became with child through the Holy Spirit, it would not be fitting for her to have intimacy with anyone else. And I do believe “fittingness” is key to understanding this.My only objection to your reply is that you said it would be adultery for her to have sex with anyone else…
I do believe that there is a significant theological reason for her perpetual virginity and I am looking to dig deep into that…
- she did not have sex with the holy spirit
- she was betrothed to Joseph - but I do believe she made a vow to celibacy and perhaps Joseph too…
These two articles should be helpful to you:My only objection to your reply is that you said it would be adultery for her to have sex with anyone else…
I do believe that there is a significant theological reason for her perpetual virginity and I am looking to dig deep into that…
- she did not have sex with the holy spirit
- she was betrothed to Joseph - but I do believe she made a vow to celibacy and perhaps Joseph too…
I don’t understand this. It seems to suggest Mary had “intimacy” with God, or the Holy Spirit, in the same way that married couples are “intimate.” Clearly, this is not what the Church teaches, as God (Spirit) is not simply a replacement for a human biological father. Can you clarify? Thanks.It would probably be better to say that since she became with child through the Holy Spirit, it would not be fitting for her to have intimacy with anyone else.
Though she did not intamacy with the Holy Spirit in the same way husband and wife have intamcy she was faithful to her “Spouse” until the end.I don’t understand this. It seems to suggest Mary had “intimacy” with God, or the Holy Spirit, in the same way that married couples are “intimate.” Clearly, this is not what the Church teaches, as God (Spirit) is not simply a replacement for a human biological father. Can you clarify? Thanks.
I still don’t understand (sorry).Though she did not intamacy with the Holy Spirit in the same way husband and wife have intamcy she was faithful to her “Spouse” until the end.
Remember that Mary is the Bride of the Holy Spirit. Their offspring is Jesus Christ who is the head and his Body is the Church. That makes Mary the Mother of the Church and our Mother as well.
Mary was the perfect Mother, faithful to her spouse for the sake of her children.
-Tim-
I don’t know if I can contribute anything to clarifying but…I don’t understand this. It seems to suggest Mary had “intimacy” with God, or the Holy Spirit, in the same way that married couples are “intimate.” Clearly, this is not what the Church teaches, as God (Spirit) is not simply a replacement for a human biological father. Can you clarify? Thanks.
Do you mean Joseph? Joseph was her spouse, right?Though she did not intamacy with the Holy Spirit in the same way husband and wife have intamcy she was faithful to her “Spouse” until the end.