Question about Catholic Bible

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If one reads what Luther said, he gives great sway to what the early Church, ECF’s etc. thought. One of his complaints regarding James was his impression of how 1500’s Catholics* used *

it, in a way that he seemed to think as superior to Paul.
Hmm…as superior to Paul. Maybe not superior but more like equal. Luther flat out indicated he thought James to be inferior.
Luther had a canon within the canon. He condemned the book of James with faint praise.
I’m still looking for a link to where he said he would have eliminate books, save the influence of others. In fact, it seems that, if this were the case, he would not have even bothered making sure the deuterocanonical books were translated and included in his 1534 translation.
 
Is it true that there are several other books of the Bible in the Catholic Bible? Why do Protestants claim the other books not included are not “spirit-breathed?” That’s what they told me. The books that were not included were not “God-breathed.”
I guess that is what I am wondering. The person who told me this had other ideas that seemed to go against Christ’s teachings. I was pretty much laughed out of that church. And forced out by nasty gossip and slander.
And is it okay if a Protestant chooses the Catholic Bible over the Protestant one? A lot of people I know wouldn’t like it if I started reading the Catholic Bible. But I want to know for myself what is true.🤷
The Catholic Bible is the complete and inspired by the Holy Spirit. It is compose of 73 books, when Luther started to established the Protestant church he detached the 7 deuterocanical books in the New and Old Testament, in 18ce most protestant church agree to the Canon of the Church on the New Testament, but still they did not include the deuterocanonicals book in the Old Testament, that is why the protestant unofficial bible is only 66 books. The Bible we are using now is Canon by the Catholic Church, while protestant founders they just interpret it according to their fallible knowledge.
 
=mackbrislawn;9409571]
Hmm…as superior to Paul. Maybe not superior but more like equal. Luther flat out indicated he thought James to be inferior.
Luther had a canon within the canon. He condemned the book of James with faint praise.
I don’t believe he condemns the book at all, in the sense of canonicity. He strongly questions the authorship, that is true, as he says:
“Though this epistle of St. James was rejected by the ancients, I praise it and consider it a good book, because it sets up no doctrines of men but vigorously promulgates the law of God. However, to state my own opinion about it, though without prejudice to anyone, I do not regard it as the writing of an apostle;
Notice his reference to “the ancients”, with Eusebius in mind.

The reason I said he thought that Rome express him as superior to Paul, he says:
“That epistle of James gives us much trouble, for the papists embrace it alone and leave out all the rest."
He wants James interpreted and considered in context with the rest of scripture, and I would say in particular with Paul. Hence, we are justified by grace alone through faith (Paul), but faith cannot be without works (James).
It’s probably not so much as what Luther said himself, but what the others said about him. Melanchthon helped put Luther’s thinking into order, into a more coherent package. In my opinion Luther probably didn’t want to translate the deuterocanon but he couldn’t get away with not doing so. That’s my opinion.
Well, Mack, you’re welcome to your opinion, but my understanding of the facts is that he, Luther, assembled the scholars that helped him translate. I know of no statement from him where he says he wants to not translate all of the books in the western Bible. Additionally, he also translated and included the Prayer of Manasseh. It would seem to me odd, for someone who wanted to exclude the D-C’s, to translate and include an additional book!
Are you referring to the deuterocanon of the OT? How about his NT views?
Same thing. He looks at the history of the Church, including Eusebius, and the questioning involved in the Antilagomena.
Yes, tradition was too much against him to allow him to do what he really wanted to do. More is made of this issue than is the case? Reading his prefaces makes you really wonder.
Have you looked at his prefaces, or just Catholic apolegetics about them (and I don’t mean this an attack, but a question)? If you have read them, you know that, for example, some of the harsher things he said about James only appears in his initial publication of the NT in 1522. If you’ve only read Catholic apolegetics about them, may I suggest James Swan’s work - just to balance the perspective, get both viewpoints.
tquid.sharpens.org/Luther_%20canon.htm#a2
“Rank order” was the best he could get away with. I’m sure he really would have preferred to not translate them nor include them. So he slandered them instead.
Sorry, I don’t see any slander, unless you want to include people like Eusebius, Jerome, and Cardinal Cajetan in that terminology.

Now all of this said, I wish Luther would have been even more direct and strident in his statement that the D-C’s: “… are useful and good to read.” I believe Lutherans in America have been remiss in simply using English language protestant translations that exclude the D-C’s. And while I understand his reluctance regarding them (because of the history of their disuted nature), I believe he should have been even more deferential to the historic Church’s (both east and west) consideration of them.

Jon
 
Are you sure? You mean congregations had the epistles and gospels read to them in Latin? Was Luther’s the first translation into German? Didn’t priests have to learn Latin? Couldn’t they translate the readings into the vernacular themselves?
Mack,

I am sure about what I have read. Before if they heard scripture at all it was Latin which most could not understand. Luthers translation was into German of course. Of course priests knew Latin. I suppose they could translate as they wanted but that kind of thing was rare I think. The general attitude was the laity did not need to read the bible.

Obviously Luther thought differently. He was right.

Rob
 
Mack,

I am sure about what I have read. Before if they heard scripture at all it was Latin which most could not understand. Luthers translation was into German of course. Of course priests knew Latin. I suppose they could translate as they wanted but that kind of thing was rare I think. The general attitude was the laity did not need to read the bible.

Obviously Luther thought differently. He was right.

Rob
But Luther acted as Judas escariot who betrayed the Church.
 
I don’t believe he condemns the book at all, in the sense of canonicity. He strongly questions the authorship, that is true, as he says:
“Though this epistle of St. James was rejected by the ancients, I praise it and consider it a good book, because it sets up no doctrines of men but vigorously promulgates the law of God. However, to state my own opinion about it, though without prejudice to anyone, I do not regard it as the writing of an apostle;
 
Mack,

I am sure about what I have read. Before if they heard scripture at all it was Latin which most could not understand. Luthers translation was into German of course. Of course priests knew Latin. I suppose they could translate as they wanted but that kind of thing was rare I think. The general attitude was the laity did not need to read the bible.

Obviously Luther thought differently. He was right.

Rob
Okay, what did you read? Are you really sure that there were no German translations before Luther’s? That question wasn’t addressed in your reply.

As far as the laity reading the bible, for centuries there were few bibles around for them to read, if they could read at all. That’s why they went to church, to hear the bible read to them. But you claim it was only in Latin.
 
=mackbrislawn;9411287]

Luther condems it with faint praise. Why does he have to bring up that James was rejected by the ancients? What does that have to do with it? Except as an indirect way to raise doubts about its canonicity, which he does also by saying he did not regard it as the writing of an apostle.
Mack,
Why should he not reference what those (obviously not all) of the early Church thought and said? One of the things protestants are accused of is not considering the early Church. Lutheran do, and so did Luther. I would think that this should be greeted with praise (even faint :D).
I bet the epistle of James did give them much trouble!
Well, the papists think Luther embraced certain writings of Paul and the gospel of John and left out all the rest.
Faith cannot be without works…Hmm, if faith cannot be without works then it is not faith alone. An example of the word play I find amusing.
Ok, so let’s consider this from the position of the post Vatican II era. If we look back and say that both sides were stubborn in their approach to this controversy, how can we now dialogue to reach common ground? Perhaps, in some ways, the Joint Declaration on the Doctrine of Justification does this.
,
Thank you
Of course, Mack. I just think, however, that it serves us well to really understand the facts, and make a determination from there.
Like I said, it wouldn’t be a statement from him, but a statement from one of the others. He must have liked the Prayer of Manasseh. But for some reason he didn’t like DC’s in general. What was that reason?
I’m not convinced that it was a matter of what he liked or didn’t like. Whether or not one agrees with him, one must admit Luther was a scholar - knowedgeable and well educated.
ISTM his reasons were not unlike that of his contemporary, Cardinal Cajetan:
“Here we close our commentaries on the historical books of the Old Testament. For the rest (that is, Judith, Tobit, and the books of Maccabees) are counted by St Jerome out of the canonical books, and are placed amongst the Apocrypha, along with Wisdom and Ecclesiasticus, as is plain from the Prologus Galeatus.
Nor be thou disturbed, like a raw scholar, if thou shouldest find anywhere, either in the sacred councils or the sacred doctors, these books reckoned as canonical. For the words as well of councils as of doctors are to be reduced to the correction of Jerome. Now, according to his judgment, in the epistle to the bishops Chromatius and Heliodorus, these books (and any other like books in the canon of the Bible) are not canonical, that is, not in the nature of a rule for confirming matters of faith. Yet, they may be called canonical, that is, in the nature of a rule for the edification of the faithful, as being received and authorised in the canon of the Bible for that purpose. By the help of this distinction thou mayest see thy way clearly through that which Augustine says, and what is written in the provincial council of Carthage.”
I haven’t seen Catholic apolegetics about them at all. I’m referring to Luther’s initial preface to the New Testament. And no wonder his harsh things were removed in later publicatons of the NT! His preface is appalling, which is simply my impression on reading it, without regard to other’s views.
Ok.
You don’t see slander. Well, Luther is subtle. But he says, “Therefore John’s gospel is the one tender true chief gospel, far, far to be preferred to the other three and placed high above them. So, too, the epistles of St Paul and St Peter far surpass the other three gospels–Matthew, Mark, and Luke.”
He goes on, “In a word, St John’s gospel and his first epistle, St Paul’s epistles, especially Romans, Galatians, and Ephesians, and St Peters first epistle are the books that show you Christ and teach you all that is necessary and good for you to know, even though you were never to see or hear any other book or doctrine. Therefore St James’ epistle is really an epistle of straw compared to them; for it has nothing of the nature of the gospel about it.”
I see this differently. Luther is Christo-centric. His is a theology of the cross. He’s expressing this in the books he prefers. Mack, there are certain books I prefer. That doesn’t mean that the others are less scriptural. Expressing an opinion is not necessarily condemning others. Swan references Jaroslav Pelikan, the Lutheran turned Orthodox scholar:
“[Luther] did not pretend that the church could undertake the construction of the canon anew, or that it could function with a canon open at both ends. Never, even at the height of his criticism of James, did he drop it from his editions of the Bible, any more than he dropped the Old Testament Apocrypha.
From his own experience he could testify that often a Christian found one or another book of the canon difficult or useless to him at a particular time, only to discover later on that it was just what he needed in a time of trouble or temptation. Had such a person been permitted to re-edit the canon on the basis of his passing mood, he would have been deprived of the patience and comfort of the Scriptures when he needed them most. Within the received canon Luther made sharp distinctions, to the point of constructing a private miniature canon. But he was realistic enough in his theology to know that one had to operate with the canon as given by tradition. That realism provided the framework within which he could say and do the things he did in relation to the canon without involving himself in a hopeless set of contradictions.
I understand. Now, why did Luther not like the DCs, was it simply that Jerome had questioned them or was there an additional, more theological reason?
I enourage you to read Swan’s piece, not to change your mind, but just to see the other view of Luther on the canon of scripture.

Jon
 
Okay, what did you read? Are you really sure that there were no German translations before Luther’s? That question wasn’t addressed in your reply.

As far as the laity reading the bible, for centuries there were few bibles around for them to read, if they could read at all. That’s why they went to church, to hear the bible read to them. But you claim it was only in Latin.
mack,

I have heard that there may have been some German bibles. However, the German language for bibles read in church could only happen in the new protestant churches.

In fact I thought only after Vatican II are Catholic services in the US done in English. Before they were all in Latin. Am I wrong about that? You tell me.

Rob
 
mack,

I have heard that there may have been some German bibles. However, the German language for bibles read in church could only happen in the new protestant churches.

In fact I thought only after Vatican II are Catholic services in the US done in English. Before they were all in Latin. Am I wrong about that? You tell me.

Rob
I think this is a false assumption Rob has been laboring under–which explains some of his strange comments–that the readings in church were also in Latin! No, the readings were in English and the sermon in English prior to Vatican II. Now, I wasn’t in Germany in Luther’s time, but I can’t imagine that the readings weren’t in German and the sermon in German, especially since it is admitted that there were German bibles before Luther’s time. I don’t think the German language for bibles read in church could only happen in the new protestant churches.

Luther’s bible helped unify the German language. Luther’s bible into the vernacular wasn’t quite the innovative idea that Rob seems to think. There are many dialects in Europe today, but think how it was even more so back then. Keeping up with translations into the vernacular was quite a job.
 
reference what those (obviously not all) of the early Church thought and said? One of the things protestants are accused of is not considering the early Church. Lutheran do, and so did Luther. I would think that this should be greeted with praise (even faint :D).
You’re turning the question around to avoid answering!😊 Why should Luther mention it at all except to make a point about the book of James by using the early Church?
Ok, so let’s consider this from the position of the post Vatican II era. If we look back and say that both sides were stubborn in their approach to this controversy, how can we now dialogue to reach common ground? Perhaps, in some ways, the Joint Declaration on the Doctrine of Justification does this.
Yes, not using word play will help find common ground.
Of course, Mack. I just think, however, that it serves us well to really understand the facts, and make a determination from there.
I guess we all have a different opinion about what the facts mean.
I’m not convinced that it was a matter of what he liked or didn’t like. Whether or not one agrees with him, one must admit Luther was a scholar - knowedgeable and well educated.
ISTM his reasons were not unlike that of his contemporary, Cardinal Cajetan:
Luther was a scholar, but were his reasons purely scholarly? Luther was also human, and a passionate one.
I see this differently. Luther is Christo-centric. His is a theology of the cross. He’s expressing this in the books he prefers. Mack, there are certain books I prefer. That doesn’t mean that the others are less scriptural. Expressing an opinion is not necessarily condemning
But why express his opinion? If not to sway the readers in some way? To guide them to his theology? Why not allow them to form their own opinions? Yes, you have certain books you prefer, and that is your personal preference. For yourself alone. Also, hopefully you do not read them first and then allow them to color the way you read the rest of scripture. That’s what I feel Luther did. And he wanted everyone to read them the way he did.
I enourage you to read Swan’s piece, not to change your mind, but just to see the other view of Luther on the canon of scripture
Is my question answered in Swan’s piece?
[/QUOTE]
 
=mackbrislawn;9426913]
You’re turning the question around to avoid answering!😊 Why should Luther mention it at all except to make a point about the book of James by using the early Church?
Because, Mack, its germane to discussions about the Epistle.
I guess we all have a different opinion about what the facts mean.
I’d say so, though I appreciate the level of comity in our conversation.
Luther was a scholar, but were his reasons purely scholarly? Luther was also human, and a passionate one.
I wouldn’t consider that an indictment. He was passionate about the Church and the faith, yes.
But why express his opinion? If not to sway the readers in some way? To guide them to his theology? Why not allow them to form their own opinions? Yes, you have certain books you prefer, and that is your personal preference. For yourself alone. Also, hopefully you do not read them first and then allow them to color the way you read the rest of scripture. That’s what I feel Luther did. And he wanted everyone to read them the way he did.
There are a number of occasions where he says things like this when referring to James:
*“… I would not thereby prevent anyone from including or extolling him as he pleases, for there are otherwise many good sayings in him.” *

It seems to me that, on both sides (just read through some of the posts on this thread), we see the issue of Luther’s view of the canon of scripture through the color of the glasses provided to us by either our communion, or the apologists who claim it. That’s not unexpected, but I think the reality of Luther on this point is somewhere between “glorious reformer” and “self-centered scoundrel”. As I have already said, I have come to the belief that Luther, while far more so than some Catholics believe, may not have been deferential enough to Tradition regarding the D-C’s.
Is my question answered in Swan’s piece?
Like I said, my friend, I don’t think he will change your mind, but at least you will get the other POV.

Jon
 
mack,

I have heard that there may have been some German bibles. However, the German language for bibles read in church could only happen in the new protestant churches.

In fact I thought only after Vatican II are Catholic services in the US done in English. Before they were all in Latin. Am I wrong about that? You tell me.

Rob
Submarine,

As a product of the Latin Mass you are correct. The Mass was in Latin and the homilies in English or whatever language the people spoke at the Mass. In other words the Latin Mass/English preaching, the Latin Mass/Spanish preaching etc…

As an altar boy I knew all the responses in Latin and the congregation had the same responses to view. I knew what they all meant and what was being said, it was just in Latin.

Think about this. The world spoke Greek before it spoke Latin. The world spoke Latin and that was the way the world communicated. Luther posted his thesis in Latin. Calvin published his institutes of religion in Latin. The Church changed the Mass from Latin to English.

English is now the universal language. There is a good book/video “The Story of English”. I did not know if you knew this but English is the language of all pilots no matter what country they fly from and the language of all air traffice controllers. In other words flight is communicated in English.

With that understanding, knowing that Latin was the universal language and that English is the universal language, understand that the Church changed from Latin to English or Latin to the native language after a long time. The Church changes slowly…this always causes me to reflect on the notion that the Church went apostate since the Church does nothing in time with any rapidity. I always wonder over what and when. I never get a solid answer.
 
=mackbrislawn;9435468]
Hi Mack,
Whenever there is a discussion on CAF about the canon of scripture, Catholics bring up the synods at Carthage, Hippo, etc. Is it wrong to do so? Should the D-C-s stand on their own? Why mention the thoughts of past local councils? How are they germane? They are not even general councils.
I would answer they are germane, and that we should discuss them, along with Jerome and Eusebius, and the ECF’s. They shine a light of historic understanding, and rightly we should consider them.
That James is considered by all of us as inspired is most important, but the historic discussion brought us there.
 
Hi Jon,

I’ll seek out Swift and see what he says.

For me, I don’t know about others, I was wondering what Luther’s personal motives were for wondering about the genesis and history of James in particular, and also the DC’s. The historic church may have fussed at some time, but so what? And wonder why he thought it important to write a preface to his New Testament at all. The American Bible Society brings out bibles without note or comment, with no attempt to influence a particular reading.

Of course, we Catholics think that Luther did have personal theological motivations for bringing up the history of James. That is an opinion, but strongly buttressed by Luther’s own words in his preface.

Thanks,
Mack
Perhaps so, Mack. I do agree with you that what is important is the here and now. How do we come to convergence on the canon of scripture that is not Church-dividing, and how would that be reflected in our mutual use of the canon? What “rule” is acceptable between us? Of course, folks with bigger degrees and fancier titles willhave to work that out.

Jon
 
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