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LoveJoyPeace
Guest
Does the Catholic Church permit divorce/annulment in cases of sexual immorality?
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The_Wizard
Guest
The short answers is NO. Go here to see what grounds can be used to obtain an annulment: http://www.stmarys-waco.org/documents/Grounds for Marriage Annulment in the Catholic Church.pdf
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adamhovey1988
Guest
As far as I know, no. By the way, I love Copts. Met a very pleasant group of them once. For some things, it may be easier to contact Catholic Answers directly.
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LoveJoyPeace
Guest
It was just curiosity. I know the Orthodox Church does permit it. I was curious about the Catholic Church. (Believe me, I am far from being married even). 
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The_Wizard
Guest
I guess it all depends on what you mean by “sexual immorality”. The above link has two grounds that I think would fall into “sexual immorality”. "You or your spouse married INTENDING, either explicitly or implicitly, not to remain faithful. “You or your spouse married BELIEVING that marriage was NOT necessarily an exclusive relationship.” My emphasis added.
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otjm
Guest
The Catholic Church does not promote divorce. It does not, however, stop a person from obtaining a divorce, and if possible the Church will try to assist the parties in reconciling (Retrouvaille).
As far as the sinfulness of obtaining a divorce, the Church holds that a party may, or may not be sinful in filing for and obtaining one, and that is subject to the specific circumstances.
As far as getting a divorce if one’s spouse has committed adultery (which is what I presume you are addressing, OP), some parties can reconcile and move forward. Normally that takes some extensive time and counseling. it is easy to suggest that the immoral party is the sole source of the adultery, but there is very often a dynamic within the marriage that has been at play. This is not to suggest that adultery is ever justified; but there often are times that there has been a dynamic, not addressed, which has pushed the immoral party to consider outside sexual activity.
If the parties get a divorce, the Church will not grant a decree of nullity based on the adultery. It will only base it on a defective consent or impediment existing as of the day of the marriage. If it can be show that as of the day of the marriage, the adulterer had no intention of exclusivity, the subsequent adultery may possibly be evidence of that defective consent, but not solely as the only evidence.
And without a decree of nullity, the parties are not free to marry someone else; in spite of a state decree of divorce, the parties are presumed still married.
As far as the sinfulness of obtaining a divorce, the Church holds that a party may, or may not be sinful in filing for and obtaining one, and that is subject to the specific circumstances.
As far as getting a divorce if one’s spouse has committed adultery (which is what I presume you are addressing, OP), some parties can reconcile and move forward. Normally that takes some extensive time and counseling. it is easy to suggest that the immoral party is the sole source of the adultery, but there is very often a dynamic within the marriage that has been at play. This is not to suggest that adultery is ever justified; but there often are times that there has been a dynamic, not addressed, which has pushed the immoral party to consider outside sexual activity.
If the parties get a divorce, the Church will not grant a decree of nullity based on the adultery. It will only base it on a defective consent or impediment existing as of the day of the marriage. If it can be show that as of the day of the marriage, the adulterer had no intention of exclusivity, the subsequent adultery may possibly be evidence of that defective consent, but not solely as the only evidence.
And without a decree of nullity, the parties are not free to marry someone else; in spite of a state decree of divorce, the parties are presumed still married.
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His_helpmeet
Guest
Case in point: my husband’s ex-wife cheated on him. That wasn’t grounds for a declaration of nullity. She told him (and confirmed to someone else that she had said this) that as far as she was concerned, marriage was glorified common-law with ceremonial benefits attached to it, that the vows she took were purely symbolic, and if she wasn’t happy she was free to walk away. THAT (coupled with the fact that they married primarily due to pregnancy) was grounds for nullity.
*Of note: she was a non-practicing Lutheran when they married and Hubby had never been baptized. They had a civil marriage with no marriage prep. Both became Catholic after the marriage. Hubby and I are sacramentally married.
*Of note: she was a non-practicing Lutheran when they married and Hubby had never been baptized. They had a civil marriage with no marriage prep. Both became Catholic after the marriage. Hubby and I are sacramentally married.
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1ke
Guest
Divorce and annulment are not the same thing.
A Catholic can divorce a spouse in circumstances when they cannot reconcile or they or children are in danger, or to protect rights. A divorced person may not marry anyone else.
A decree of nullity is a finding that a valid marriage did not take place. Sexual immorality is not per se grounds for nullity. If a decree of nullity is issued, the person is free to marry.
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