T
Terry_from_Ypsi
Guest
Today’s first reading from Isaiah 1 includes this verse, verse 10
"Hear the word of the LORD, princes of Sodom! Listen to the instruction of our God, people of Gomorrah! "
I was wondering, how could there be any princes of Sodom or people of Gomorrah ? Were not both cities and their peoples utterly destroyed never to be inhabited again ?
Is God speaking to the degree of sin present in Israel ?
Could this be applicable today ?
Just wondering.
Thank you.
"Hear the word of the LORD, princes of Sodom! Listen to the instruction of our God, people of Gomorrah! "
I was wondering, how could there be any princes of Sodom or people of Gomorrah ? Were not both cities and their peoples utterly destroyed never to be inhabited again ?
Is God speaking to the degree of sin present in Israel ?
Could this be applicable today ?
Just wondering.
Thank you.