K
Kanuckistani
Guest
I’ve had a discussion with a Jehovah’s Witness about John 1:1, and he’s using the NWT. I am using the RSV-CE. Obviously the two translations are different. My question is, why are they different? And did the Watchtower knowingly change the verse to follow its own doctrine? Also, could some explain how it was translated the way it was (in the RSV-CE or any other Catholic/Protestant Bible).
Btw, I believe in the Trinity, just want some insight into this specific verse.
Btw, I believe in the Trinity, just want some insight into this specific verse.