Thanks, commenter, for the info. But the question is, while these episcopal conferences do have weight, how much authority do they actually possess since they are not, by definition, infallible? The Pope delegates these conferences his Authority, but he doesn’t delegate to them his infallibility. And, technically, he still would be Patriarch of the West, since this is, partly, what the early Church considered him to be.
I also thought of more that I could add to my previous post.
In another thread entitled “Primacy but not Supremacy?”, it was discovered by some of us, through the conversation, that the Eastern Orthodox argument of Papal Primacy and the Western Roman Catholic argument of Papal Supremacy were, within most contexts (there still is some differences though), the same. What unites East and West, then, would be the Tradition that the Pope can offer a final, binding ruling in situations only when division is occuring up to the level of Patriarchs (and I believe this can work equally as well with St. Ignatius’ second century words as many Roman Catholics claim that supremacy does). Therefore, another limit to Papal Authority has been discovered: it can and should only be used when there is such a division in the Church, even at the level of Patriarchs (and this has always been in the background of many ecumenical councils).
NOW A FURTHER DISCUSSION: There is a difference between revelation, inspiration, and infallibility (infallibility being “lower” in importance than the two former works of God…the first would make the Pope, literally, an Apostle and not merely the highest Bishop, a successor to the Apostles, and the second would make him capable of writing a new Book of Scripture), and the Pope cannot reveal a new public revelation from God, nor can he, in an obvious and public way, be discerned to be inspired. Infallibility only means that he is guarded by the Holy Spirit from teaching any error as regards to the Faith and morals (but some would say that he is guarded from even teaching anything that could possibly even lead to error in these).
In light of the above, why do we have infallibility defined according to such specific criteria (speaking to the whole Church, ex-cathedra, on Faith and morals, using clear and binding language that he is doing so), when we are, also, supposed to grant him an ascent of the will and mind, whenever he speaks, in non-infallible matters?
This is all the more problematic since the Pope, not revelation-giving nor being clearly inspired, is what I call a “custodian of the sources of our Tradition,” in fact, the head custodian. If he is only using the Tradition and synthesizing answers from its sources in order to teach, so long as he is not making infallible statements (which depend on certain criteria, and, as I have said, should only be made when there is top-level ecclesial conflict) couldn’t we, therefore, disagree on his non-infallibly stated interpretations. We, too, after all have the ability to learn and become masters of the Tradition, ourselves. I too can teach. However, I will admit that I do not have the Grace given to even an ordained priest in whatever leadership role that I have (say, within my family, or as a school teacher, or as a Bible study leader) in order to lead the Body. I’m not equipped with that kind of ecclesial Grace for leadership. I’m just naturally, and not supernaturally, equipped…although, paradoxically, God can also use me, through Grace, as his instrument.
Therefore, are there limits to Papal Authority in regards to individual believers? Shouldn’t there be?