Question about Matthew 12:40

[Psalms62]

jcrichton,

Using a midnight to midnight calendar day would actually result in 4 night times with a Friday afternoon death/Sunday morning resurrection.

I thought we were. Also, to confirm that idea of the time and the day, i thought i would add an additional passage through Genesis -

 

[Psalms62]

…not only that but the Unfolding of the Salvific Plan: ‘the mother of my Lord.’ The Immanuel (the God-with-us) has Come! God’s Promise is Revealed to Israel as He in Whom the Gentiles would place their Hope has Come to Israel and the world at large!

Maran atha!

Angel

Yes, I think of how beautiful the verses tell the story in Luke especially one passage that describes Mary’s amazement after the angels announced the birth of Jesus to the shepherds, “19 But Mary treasured up all these things and pondered them in her heart. 20 The shepherds returned, glorifying and praising God for all the things they had heard and seen, which were just as they had been told.” And then, after Simeon response, “33 The child’s father and mother marveled at what was said about him.”

You know, throughout the Old Testament, the Salvation “plan” unfolds with each matriarch patriarch together fulfilling the promise and St Paul brings this out in Hebrews 11 - “Now faith is confidence in what we hope for and assurance about what we do not see. 2 This is what the ancients were commended for.”

So imagine, the verse in John 8:48-59, " 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and was glad.” 57 So the Jews said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?”[b] 58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”

 

[PJM]

The Messiah said that He would be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights. I think that most Catholics believe that He was crucified on a Friday and was resurrected on a Sunday. However, that period of time allows for only two nights to be involved. What is the explanation for the lack of a third night?

Douay Commentary:
" 40 “Three days”… Not complete days and nights; but part of three days, and three nights taken according to the way that the Hebrews counted their days and nights, viz., from evening to evening."

Quote: CHAPTER XII

I say then, that the expression three days and three nights is here only a periphrasis and description of a natural day. The two integral parts of such a day are day and night, or light and darkness. Christ makes use of this periphrasis because Jonah, His antetype, did the same. (Jonah i. 17.) We must not understand that these days are three artificial days as opposed to nights, as if during three days, in which the sun is above the horizon, Christ lay in the tomb; for this was not the case. You must consider these three natural days to be not whole days but parts of days, namely, the latter part of Friday; when Christ being taken down from the Cross, was laid in the sepulchre, the whole of Saturday, and part of the Lord’s day. For although the Hebrews reckoned their civil days from one sun-rise to another, like the Chaldeans and the Persians ( Beda de ration. temp .), yet they computed their sacred days, such as the Passover, from evening to evening. Thus S. Jerome, Theophyl., Euthym., and S. Aug. and commentators, passim , explain the meaning of these three days. Hence Christ is constantly spoken of as rising on the third day, or after three days, without any mention of nights. End quotes

 

[rstrats]

PJM,
re: " Not complete days and nights; but part of three days, and three nights taken according to the way that the Hebrews counted their days and nights, viz., from evening to evening."

Is there any implication in that statement that it was common in the first century and before to forecast or say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur?

BTW, what is the reason for pointing out an evening to evening caledar day versus a sunrise to sunrise calendar day? What difference does it make with regard to the three days and three nights?

 

[PJM]

PJM,
re: " Not complete days and nights; but part of three days, and three nights taken according to the way that the Hebrews counted their days and nights, viz., from evening to evening."

Is there any implication in that statement that it was common in the first century and before to forecast or say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur?

BTW, what is the reason for pointing out an evening to evening caledar day versus a sunrise to sunrise calendar day? What difference does it make with regard to the three days and three nights?

http://www.catholicapologetics.info/scripture/newtestament/12matth.htm

We must not understand that these days are three artificial days as opposed to nights, as if during three days, in which the sun is above the horizon, Christ lay in the tomb; for this was not the case . You must consider these three natural days to be not whole days but parts of days, namely, the latter part of Friday; when Christ being taken down from the Cross, was laid in the sepulchre, the whole of Saturday, and part of the Lord’s day. For although the Hebrews reckoned their civil days from one sun-rise to another, like the Chaldeans and the Persians ( Beda de ration. temp .), yet they computed their sacred days, such as the Passover, from evening to evening. Thus S. Jerome, Theophyl., Euthym., and S. Aug. and commentators, passim , explain the meaning of these three days. Hence Christ is constantly spoken of as rising on the third day, or after three days, without any mention of nights. ….

But in this place, according to this computation, there were but two nights in which Christ lay in the tomb, viz. Friday and Saturday nights, and yet three nights are expressly mentioned . Others therefore answer more fully and plainly; that these three days and nights are reckoned according to the Roman computation. For the Romans were at that time, masters of Judea, and had introduced their own methods of computing time in civil affairs. The Romans reckoned from midnight to midnight, as Christians do in their fasts and festivals. (See Macrob. L. 1. Saturni c. Gell. L. 3. c. 2. Pliny. L. 2. c. 77. and others). According to this reckoning it is clear Christ remained in the tomb during a part of three days and three nights. He was buried on Friday before sunset; and was in the tomb until the midnight of that day. After that He was in the tomb during the entire day and night of the Sabbath; and from the midnight of Sunday for about six hours until that dawning of the Lord’s Day on which He arose. For the Passover was at that time about the equinox, when the days and nights are equal, each being about twelve hours long. But the Soul of Christ, immediately when He expired upon the Cross at the ninth hour, i.e ., at three o’clock in the afternoon, descended into Limbus, and there remained with the Fathers until the dawn of Easter Day ***.

 

[rstrats]

abccc,
re: “I like the answers on google”

Are any of the explanations different from the ones already given above?