JMJ
Thanks, ConstantineTG for your reply!
I asked for documented proof because the question at hand was dealing with a matter of liceity; in other words, we’ve been asking if it is lawful to consume Metamucil within the fast period. I do not intend or try to trivialize the matter, reducing it to mere accordance with the law; however, we cannot disregard the law and reduce our actions to what we individually interpret. Such relativism destroys the integrity of the law. Adonai gave particular laws to His people; these laws were accompanied by precepts that provided guidelines for following the laws. In turn, the people developed statutes to protect the precepts that protect the Law. Jesus’ critique of the people was that they lost touch with the actual laws, replacing them with these hand-made statutes (the precepts are given by Adonai, insofar as they are written in the Torah), and it became for them a matter simply of abiding to the Law, not giving Adonai the praise and worship and love (etc.) due Him.
When we are asking the question as to if it is licit to consume Metamucil within the Eucharistic fast, we cannot rely simply on our own opinions, but we look to the Magisterial teachings of the Church to first realize what is expected of us and why (objectively), and then begin to understand it (subjectively). God makes us holy, true, but we must comply with the law of the Church in order to be properly disposed to God’s grace. Again this is the point of the question: does the consumption of Metamucil during the Eucharistic fast improperly dispose one to receiving Holy Communion? God makes us holy, but we must nevertheless merit heaven by the things we do in accordance with God’s providence and accomplished by God’s grace working in and through us. I must be worthy to receive Communion in order to receive with it the graces of that Communion; if one of the necessary elements for sacramental validity is missing, then there has been no sacrament. That doesn’t mean God’s grace cannot work, but it does mean the sacrament didn’t happen. If a priest does not use lawful matter, or if he significantly changes the words of Institution, or if he himself is not validly ordained, or if he does not intend to do what the Church intends by the Sacrament of the Eucharist: the consecration does not happen. Yet the congregation, participants by no fault of their own in the invalidity of the sacrament, may still receive graces from God, Who can bestow grace as He wills; but if they (not knowing the consecration is invalid) go to receive ‘communion’, they will NOT consume the Body, Blood, Soul, and Divinity of Jesus Christ–they will NOT receive the Eucharist.
In conclusion, I am grounded in my reason for asking for documented sources, because the question at hand is a matter of legality in the Church, for one to be properly disposed to receiving the Eucharist and its graces. We are not dealing with a matter of personal opinion or interpretation of the teachings of Holy Mother Church, but with what She requests and why. I am not saying you are incorrect in holding such an opinion, but, not knowing myself if the Church agrees with you, I am asking you for evidence that the Church would support your perspective.
God love you!