C
cyberwolf001
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Why is it so hard to find them? Until spring of this year is seems that no Orthodox Bibles could be found in the Western World why is this?
So that is their official canon?1 Esdras 3rd and 4th Maccabees and Psalm 151
Eastern Catholics are bound by the DOGMA of the Catholic Church. They accept the Catholic canon, though some Eastern rite Catholics believe the non-accepted books of the palestinian canon are profitable for reading (though not part of inspired scripture).What’s the position for Eastern Catholics? Do they use the Catholic or Orthodox canon?
Also, I have a NRSV (New Revised Standard Version) Bible that contains all the deuterocanonical books (the Catholic and Orthodox books) in an appendix. I’m not sure if that’s what you’re looking for, but that’s pretty widely available.
I think you mistyped. Catholics also acceptBooks we accept that Catholics do not include:
. 3 Maccabees (sometimes split into 3 and 4 Maccabees)
. Psalm 151
. Susanna (part of the LXX book of Daniel)
. Bel and the Serpent (part of the LXX book of Daniel)
. Hymn of the Three Young Men (part of the LXX book of Daniel)
. 99 extra verses in the book of Ezra (which we call 1 Esdras)
Sorry I apologise for that mistake.I think you mistyped. Catholics also accept
-Susanna (as chapter 13 of Daniel)
-Bel and the Dragon (as chapter 14 of Daniel)
-Song of the Three Young Men (found within chapter 3 of Daniel)
It is true that Catholics do not consider 3 Maccabees, 1 Esdras and Psalm 151 in the Canon of Scripture.
I’m just wondering: has the Orthodox Churches actually defined the books such as 3 Maccabees, 1 Esdras, etc as part of Scripture? Or is it just commonly accepted without any former definitions?
That is not how I heard it. Hold on while I find another post.Yep.
One must understand history to know why there is a difference. In the early church, TWO canons were widely available - the Alexandrian canon and the Palestinian canon.
The Alexandrian canon consisted of the modern day Protestant Old Testament, while the Palestinian canon had extra material (this is the canon which is used in the LXX).
The Orthodox Church accepted the LXX and thus accepted the Palestinian canon. The western church “historically” accepted the Alexandrian canon, but the “extra” material was regarded as good for reading, though not being scripture.
Later at the council of Trent, some (but not all) of the Palestinian canon was accepted as scripture by the Roman Catholic Church. So an Orthodox might be able to say “Catholics took books out of the bible”, while Protestants can say “Catholics added books to the bible”.
Regardless, Orthodoxy and Protestantism have historically grounded canons - while the Catholic canon is a somewhat hybrid (a new canon).
In front of Protestants, Catholics need to justify why they “added” these books to the Old Testament, while in front of Orthodox, they need to justify why they “removed” these books from the bible.
God bless.
Yes but why? I mean surely it would be a top priority to get the Sacred Scriptures into peoples hands asap. Especially since according to Orthodox info one major flaw we Catholics have is our de-emphasis on Sacred Scripture.But to get back to my question is it that you couldn’t find an Orthodox Bible until very recently?
** English Orthodox versions have heretofore been hard to find, but NT versions did exist.
The Orthodox Study Bible is the first readily availble translation of the LXX OT.**
Ahh, I think I know where you are coming from now. What you mean is that you couldnt find an Orthodox ENGLISH translation of the Bible until fairly recently.Yes but why? I mean surely it would be a top priority to get the Sacred Scriptures into peoples hands asap. Especially since according to Orthodox info one major flaw we Catholics have is our de-emphasis on Sacred Scripture.
First, there were actually at least 5 different OT canons (there were actually more, but I say “5” just as a general, not specific, consideration) floating around throughout the early Church. Some OT canons contained books that other regions included in the NT. The earliest synodical attempt to establish an OT canon was the Council of Laodicia, which mirrored the LXX.One must understand history to know why there is a difference. In the early church, TWO canons were widely available - the Alexandrian canon and the Palestinian canon.
The Alexandrian canon consisted of the modern day Protestant Old Testament, while the Palestinian canon had extra material (this is the canon which is used in the LXX).
The Orthodox Church accepted the LXX and thus accepted the Palestinian canon. The western church “historically” accepted the Alexandrian canon, but the “extra” material was regarded as good for reading, though not being scripture.
While the Protestants can do whatever they want, it is invalid and unpatristic for Eastern Orthodox to claim that the Catholic Church took books away from the Bible. The Sixth and Seventh Ecumenical Councils accepted ALL the canons that were extant in the Church – including the one determined by the Council of Carthage under St. Augustine and confirmed by the bishop of Rome. Please correct your fellow EO who would ever criticize Catholics for “taking away” books from the Bible.Later at the council of Trent, some (but not all) of the Palestinian canon was accepted as scripture by the Roman Catholic Church. So an Orthodox might be able to say “Catholics took books out of the bible”, while Protestants can say “Catholics added books to the bible”.
As noted, the Catholic Canon dates from the latter fourth century. It is by no means “new.” Protestants don’t have historically grounded canons. Their canon dates from the 16th century, based on an erroneous interpretation of St. Jerome.Regardless, Orthodoxy and Protestantism have historically grounded canons - while the Catholic canon is a somewhat hybrid (a new canon).
There’s no need for Catholics to justify their canon. EO who feel Catholics “removed” books from the Bible are merely repudiating the Sixth and Seventh Ecumenical Councils.In front of Protestants, Catholics need to justify why they “added” these books to the Old Testament, while in front of Orthodox, they need to justify why they “removed” these books from the bible.
So?I’m just wondering: has the Orthodox Churches actually defined the books such as 3 Maccabees, 1 Esdras, etc as part of Scripture? Or is it just commonly accepted without any former definitions?
There are no councils recognized as Ecumenical that define 3/4 Maccabees etc as being canonical.