J
josea
Guest
Dear all,
Let me ask you a theoretical question that will help me to put in order my thoughts.
We know that the Church teaches that preventive sterilization is immoral (considered it as direct sterilization) and that a woman to whom a putative new pregnancy would kill is not allowed to have her reproductive organs removed. The reason to forbid this “preventive sterilization” is that the reproductive organs are healthy (?) and the life threatening danger comes only when the reproductive function would be activated by marital relations.
The prohibition of this “preventive sterilization” relies on the fact that the organs are in good health and only are dangerous when a pregnancy occurs. Because these organs are not an actual danger for the woman they can not be removed.
Now, this woman practices NFP and one day for whatever reason (it is not important for the example) the woman gets pregnant. She would certainly die if pregnancy is allowed to continue.
Does this mean that NOW the reproductive function is an actual danger for the woman and can be removed? Remember that the reason to allow the removal of the uterus is its actual risk for the health of the woman and this situation is certainly a risk.
I know that this would be an abortion and the Church also teaches that evil can not be done that good can come from this action but considering that the Church forbids preventive sterilization makes very difficult decisions after something as an unpredicted pregnancy occurs.
Should this woman now die before sinning?
Should the removal of the uterus be performed?
Why should the Church allow this situation to occur if a preventive sterilization could have “solved” the problem?
Regards,
Jose
Let me ask you a theoretical question that will help me to put in order my thoughts.
We know that the Church teaches that preventive sterilization is immoral (considered it as direct sterilization) and that a woman to whom a putative new pregnancy would kill is not allowed to have her reproductive organs removed. The reason to forbid this “preventive sterilization” is that the reproductive organs are healthy (?) and the life threatening danger comes only when the reproductive function would be activated by marital relations.
The prohibition of this “preventive sterilization” relies on the fact that the organs are in good health and only are dangerous when a pregnancy occurs. Because these organs are not an actual danger for the woman they can not be removed.
Now, this woman practices NFP and one day for whatever reason (it is not important for the example) the woman gets pregnant. She would certainly die if pregnancy is allowed to continue.
Does this mean that NOW the reproductive function is an actual danger for the woman and can be removed? Remember that the reason to allow the removal of the uterus is its actual risk for the health of the woman and this situation is certainly a risk.
I know that this would be an abortion and the Church also teaches that evil can not be done that good can come from this action but considering that the Church forbids preventive sterilization makes very difficult decisions after something as an unpredicted pregnancy occurs.
Should this woman now die before sinning?
Should the removal of the uterus be performed?
Why should the Church allow this situation to occur if a preventive sterilization could have “solved” the problem?
Regards,
Jose