Question about sin and temporal punishment

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onegirlinchrist

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Hi All,
  1. If someone is invincibly ignorant and they violate the natural law, is their action still a sin? In other words, is consent required to make something a sin?
  2. Is it possible for someone to sin ignorantly and not incur temporal punishment, or is there always temporal punishment for sin?
(quick note: Temporal punishment is the physical/spiritual corruption arising from violating the natural law, as well as the unfortunate temporal consequences of our actions, correct?)
  1. The consequences of Original Sin which are not alleviated in baptism (death, concupiscence), are these properly labeled as temporal punishment for sin?
Thank you!
 
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