Question about the genealogy of Jesus Christ

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ElCid

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Why would Christ our Lord have a genealogy in Luke and Matthew (cf Matthew 1:6-16 and Luke 3:23-31) when everyone knows that Jesus had no earthly father? And can someone explain to me the apparent discrepancy between the two listings? How can both be true when the only common name we found in the Lord’s ancestry is Joseph?

May the Lord Bless the work of your hands. Warm greetings from the Philippines.
 
The genealogy in Matthew is the one of his legal father, Joseph, and the one in Luke is that of his biological mother, Mary:
The Jewish follower that gave these to me, also pointed out that Jews did not trace heritage by women, only men. I’m sorry if these are all wrong, like I said, I put them up to see what others would think of them, and the response seems rather obvious to me. I don’t have the time to check them all out for myself, so thanks for pointing out any of these contradictions that you see as absolutely wrong.
This is true and also the reason why Joseph is mentioned in both genealogies as opposed to Mary in Luke and Joseph in Matthew. The father’s trade was also passed down to the son, and the mother taught the daughter to do “woman work.” This would account for the two different genealogies. Matthew, who deals with Joseph, gives Joseph’s, and Luke who describes the Annunciation, Mary’s, so that Jesus could be shown to be Abraham and David’s descendant both legally and genetically. It is interesting to note that if Joseph is Jesus’ physical father (i.e. God artificially inseminated Mary), then Jesus had a cursed lineage due to Jeconiah. If Jesus has no biological relationship with Joseph, then it’s entertaining to wonder how He is a man.

Linguistic proof for Luke being Mary’s genealogy is the terminology of Luke before each name using the article tou for all except Joseph. A Greek audience would immediately realize that the equivalent to son of Joseph in Luke would be “Jesus being (as was supposed the son of Joseph) the son of Heli” with the understanding that Jesus was the grandson of Heli through Mary.

In addition to this, genealogies were kept in the Temple which was destroyed in 70 AD, so a pre-70 AD author would not have had the pleasure of fabrication, yet on the contrary a later one wouldn’t have had evidence against him.
 
Why would Christ our Lord have a genealogy in Luke and Matthew (cf Matthew 1:6-16 and Luke 3:23-31) when everyone knows that Jesus had no earthly father? And can someone explain to me the apparent discrepancy between the two listings? How can both be true when the only common name we found in the Lord’s ancestry is Joseph?

May the Lord Bless the work of your hands. Warm greetings from the Philippines.
Both Matthew and Luke show the geneology of Jesus through Joseph. Neither shows it through Mary.

newadvent.org/cathen/06410a.htm
rtforum.org/lt/lt11.html
 
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