Question about the Gospel of John

[martinez7251]

Hello I’m reading the New Jerusalem version of the Bible and I was wondering if someone can please help me out with a question I have about chapter 10 in the gospel of John when the Jews confront Jesus about being the messiah.

"32 so Jesus said to them, 'I have shown you many good works from my Father; for which of these are you stoning me?'33 The Jews answered him, ‘We are stoning you, not for doing a good work, but for blasphemy; though you are only a man, you claim to be God.’ 34 Jesus answered: Is it not written in your Law: I said, you are gods?
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In verse 34 Jesus replied with “Is it not written in your Law: I said, you are gods?”. I looked up the verse that he was referring to which is Psalms 82 Verse 6.

“5 ‘Ignorant and uncomprehending, they wander in darkness, while the foundations of the world are tottering. 6 I had thought, “Are you gods, are all of you sons of the Most High?”. 7 No! you will die as human beings do, as one man, princes, you will fall.’ 8 Arise, God, judge the world, for all nations belong to you.”

When I read verse 6 I interpreted it as God saying I thought you were Gods, but I was wrong you will die as human beings do. If this is the case the scripture doesn’t say that God said to the Jews they were Gods. I’m really confused someone please help.

 

[AJB328]

The following is from the Haydock commentary which you can google, they have the whole Bible on there. Hope this helps

Ver. 31. Then took up stones, &c. because, said they, being a man, thou makest thyself God. The Jews, says St. Augustine, understood well enough what the Arians will not understand, that from Christ’s words it followed that he was one and the same God with the eternal Father. (Witham) — The Jews, in opposition to our Saviour’s doctrine, took up stones to destroy him, in order that he might preach no more to them. So heretics at the present time exercise the odium of their impiety against the same Lord, by perverting his holy doctrines, and, as much as in them lies, pulling him and his servants down from the glorious seats of heavenly bliss. (St. Augustine)

Ver. 34. This is addressed to princes established to govern the people of God. They are the image of God on earth by the authority they exercise, and which they have received from Him. — Is it not written in your law, (under which were also comprehended the Psalms) I have said: you are Gods? &c. Christ here stops the mouths of the Jews, by an argument which they could not answer, that sometimes they were called Gods, who acted by God’s authority. I have said: you are Gods. (Psalm lxxxi. 6.) But then he immediately declares, that it is not in this sense only that he is God. 1st, Because he has been sanctified by the Father, which St. Augustine and others understand of that infinite sanctification, which he has necessarily by always proceeding from the Father. Others expound it of a greater sanctity and fulness of grace above all other saints, given to him, even as he was man. But 2ndly, he adds at the same time, and confirms what he had often told them, that he was the Son of God, sent into the world: that his works shew that he was in the Father, and the Father in him. by this they saw that he was far from recalling or contradicting what he had said before. And therefore (ver. 30.[39.?]) they sought to apprehend him, and put him to death for blasphemy. (Witham) — Eloim, which name of God was so called from judging, and may be interpreted judges. (Menochius)

Ver. 39. And he escaped out of their hands; perhaps making himself invisible, or hindering them by his divine power. (Witham)

 

[martinez7251]

The following is from the Haydock commentary which you can google, they have the whole Bible on there. Hope this helps

Ver. 31. Then took up stones, &c. because, said they, being a man, thou makest thyself God. The Jews, says St. Augustine, understood well enough what the Arians will not understand, that from Christ’s words it followed that he was one and the same God with the eternal Father. (Witham) — The Jews, in opposition to our Saviour’s doctrine, took up stones to destroy him, in order that he might preach no more to them. So heretics at the present time exercise the odium of their impiety against the same Lord, by perverting his holy doctrines, and, as much as in them lies, pulling him and his servants down from the glorious seats of heavenly bliss. (St. Augustine)

Ver. 34. This is addressed to princes established to govern the people of God. They are the image of God on earth by the authority they exercise, and which they have received from Him. — Is it not written in your law, (under which were also comprehended the Psalms) I have said: you are Gods? &c. Christ here stops the mouths of the Jews, by an argument which they could not answer, that sometimes they were called Gods, who acted by God’s authority. I have said: you are Gods. (Psalm lxxxi. 6.) But then he immediately declares, that it is not in this sense only that he is God. 1st, Because he has been sanctified by the Father, which St. Augustine and others understand of that infinite sanctification, which he has necessarily by always proceeding from the Father. Others expound it of a greater sanctity and fulness of grace above all other saints, given to him, even as he was man. But 2ndly, he adds at the same time, and confirms what he had often told them, that he was the Son of God, sent into the world: that his works shew that he was in the Father, and the Father in him. by this they saw that he was far from recalling or contradicting what he had said before. And therefore (ver. 30.[39.?]) they sought to apprehend him, and put him to death for blasphemy. (Witham) — Eloim, which name of God was so called from judging, and may be interpreted judges. (Menochius)

Ver. 39. And he escaped out of their hands; perhaps making himself invisible, or hindering them by his divine power. (Witham)

This didn’t answer my question. My question is where in the New Jerusalem Bible does it say that God said that the Jews were Gods.

 

[AJB328]

Do you have the reader’s edition or the one with all the notes?

In my copy of the NJB is says the following about that passage:

The words were addressed to judges whose function made them, in a sense, ‘gods’ because ‘judgement is God’s’, Ex 21:6, Dt 1:17; 19:17; Ps 58. Jesus’ argument is a rabbinic a fortiori the conclusion being that blasphemy is a surprising charge to bring when it is God’s consecrated envoy who calls himself Son of God. On this title, ‘Son of God’, v. 36, cf. 5:25; 11:4,27; 20:17, 31; Jesus’ fate is henceforth to turn, see 19:7, see also Mt 4:3d

You can also research the Biblical judges to which the footnote refers. Since God alone can judge and the names of these leaders were judges, a case could be made for them to also be lesser, ‘gods’ because of the power given to them by God.

-AJ