Question about the Holy Innocents

[RNRobert]

In Matthew, we read how King Herod slaughtered the children of Jerusalem in an attempt to kill the infant Jesus. However, from what I’ve read, there are no secular accounts of this atrocity (you’d think there would be). Some scholars say this story was added by Matthew in order to compare Jesus to Moses. Can anyone offer up any explanations?

 

[AnthonyM2]

From what I’ve read and heard of Herod, the slaughter of the Holy Innocents was something he was capable of, in keeping with his character. Even if it’s not mentioned elsewhere, his other atrocities were just as bad or worse and since Bethelehem was a small town it might not have gotten as much attention as his other misdeeds at the time.

Here is a link to an article from New Advent that explains more. newadvent.org/cathen/07419a.htm

 

[Fidelis]

Even if it’s not mentioned elsewhere, his other atrocities were just as bad or worse and since Bethelehem was a small town it might not have gotten as much attention as his other misdeeds at the time.

From what I’ve read, based on the estimated size of Bethlehem at this time, there were probably less than 40 children killed at this time. Not only was Bethlehem small and out of the way, but it was mostly poor – not the kind of place to get a lot of attention.

Also, this would not be something about his reign that Herod would take pains to have recorded in depth.

 

[RNRobert]

Anthony and Fidelis,

Thank you for your replies. They pretty much confirm what I suspected, that as the event took place in a small town, it would be less likely to be noticed, and that Herod would not likely advertise the event.