L
Le_Cracquere
Guest
Nor would I call it outright “implausible.” However, one gathers that girls were married off inordinately young by our standards. If an adult man were married to a child, or to a near-child, a waiting period before consummation would seem perfectly sensible–which would make Mary’s question a reasonable one. Is that plausible? At the very least, it doesn’t seem any more strained than the interpretation making Jesus’ half-brothers out to be cousins or some such.Le Cracquere:
WHY would the Catholic interpretation not be “plausible” Le Cracquere?
A marriage without conjugal relations was stated in Scripture (Joseph “knew her not”) concerning BEFORE Jesus was born.
(Nothing is said explicitly about “after Jesus was born”.)
THAT is “plausible” to you at least isn’t it Le Cracquere?
And what about the encounter the Blessed Virgin Mary had with the Archangel Gabriel in Luke 1?
Think about it.
You have a young married woman.
And an angel from Heaven appears to her and tells her she will have a son, etc.
And HOW does she respond?
With this:
“HOW CAN THIS BE??”
This response would NOT make sense for any typical married woman.
Why?
Go through it yourself and it becomes obvious why.
If your newly married sister and her husband and you, were sitting around the kitchen table over a cup of coffee and you told her you think she was going to have a son . . .
. . . . she might reply . . . .
. . . well she might reply a lot of ways.
She might say . . . .
“Great. I’d love to have a son.”
Or she might say . . . .
“No. I think we are going to have a daughter first.”
Or she might say . . . .
“Well I’m really hoping for twins. One of each a boy AND a girl.”
She might reply a lot of ways.
But if you told a newly married woman she was going have a son . . . how WOULDN’T she respond?
She would NOT respond by asking . . . “HOW can this come about?”
She would not respond by asking HOW this could occur . . . . UNLESS . . . .
. . . . UNLESS she had taken a vow of virginity (and her and her husband ALREADY KNEW that and were planning on living out their vow of virginity).
If she had taken such a vow (and it is implicitly evident Mary and Joseph DID take such a vow), the answer . . . .
** . . . . “HOW can this be”?? . . . . **
. . . .makes perfect sense.
The Catholic interpretation in my opinion is the ONLY plausible option that I can think of.
Obviously, immediate consummation isn’t required to make a marriage valid (after all, a wedded couple at their reception are validly married, even if they didn’t dash to a broom closet beforehand!) But seems as if the question should be whether it’s on the table, and whether the marriage is validly “ordered toward” such matters, to borrow a locution from Catholic theology.