Question about the Messiah

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HailMary90

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Where in the Holy Bible does it indicate that the Messiah will be the Son of God and not just a human being? Preferably from the Old Testament.

Thank you!
 
Thank you very much! I knew of them but didn’t remember the exact verses.

I wanted to know for debate reasons if it was ever brought up.

-God bless
 
Your other quotes from the Holy Scriptures are very good, S.M.O.M., but this one cannot be applied to the Christ. It is not applicable because the second half of verse 14 says: “(he shall be, to Me, a son)… And if he commit any iniquity, I will correct him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men.”

How can the Lord, the Messiah, commit iniquity? This prophecy is directed toward Solomon, not our Lord Jesus! 🙂 Anyway, v. 13 makes it pretty obvious… 😃
 
GloriousOrder said:
Your other quotes from the Holy Scriptures are very good, S.M.O.M., but this one cannot be applied to the Christ. It is not applicable because the second half of verse 14 says: “(he shall be, to Me, a son)… And if he commit any iniquity, I will correct him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men.”

How can the Lord, the Messiah, commit iniquity? This prophecy is directed toward Solomon, not our Lord Jesus! 🙂 Anyway, v. 13 makes it pretty obvious… 😃
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Interesting! 😃
 
GloriousOrder said:
Your other quotes from the Holy Scriptures are very good, S.M.O.M., but this one cannot be applied to the Christ. It is not applicable because the second half of verse 14 says: “(he shall be, to Me, a son)… And if he commit any iniquity, I will correct him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the children of men.”

How can the Lord, the Messiah, commit iniquity? This prophecy is directed toward Solomon, not our Lord Jesus! 🙂 Anyway, v. 13 makes it pretty obvious… 😃
Click to expand...
I’m way out of my league in responding here, but, if I might. It seems obvious that Christ took on himself the iniquity of all men, and he was indeed subject to the ‘rod’ of men at the cross and before that with the torture (stripes) as of a condemned man.

It is only by his atoning sacrifice that “we are healed.”
 
Crumpy said:
I’m way out of my league in responding here, but, if I might. It seems obvious that Christ took on himself the iniquity of all men, and he was indeed subject to the ‘rod’ of men at the cross and before that with the torture (stripes) as of a condemned man.

It is only by his atoning sacrifice that “we are healed.”
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Yes, that is a way to look at it… but you can’t look too far into the thing. The verse says “if he shall commit iniquity, I will punish him”, not “if others shall commit iniquity, he shall bear it”. This is said by God our Lord in reference to a human being; after all, who deserves punishment but the wrongdoer? Our Father is saying: if X commits sin, X shall be punished. There are good ‘atonement passages’ elsewhere in the Old Testament, but this can’t be one of them. Christ commits no iniquity, thank God!
 
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