Question about the saints

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I’m not sure if this is the right category, but it does have to do with scripture a little.

I was talking to a protestant friend and she told me that the rosary is wrong because its not in the bible, and that the saints can’t here us so its pointless and wrong to pray for them.

Is there anything in the bible that talks about the saints being able to here our prayers?
 
**Ask this misguided “bible alone” lady, “Where in the Bible does it say the Saints can’t hear us?”

Not everything is in the bible; “But there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.” (Jn 21:25)

“And there appeared to them Eli’jah with Moses; and they were talking to Jesus.” (Mk 9:4)

“And as for the dead being raised, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the passage about the bush, how God said to him, ‘I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? 27 He is not God of the dead, but of the living; you are quite wrong.” MK 12:26-27)

“Therefore, since we are surrounded by so great a cloud of witnesses,…” (Heb 12:1)**

Sancta Maria, Mater Dei, Ora Pro Nobis Peccatoribus!

mark
 
Practically all of the Rosary is in the Bible. The Our Father is in the gospels, and variations on the Glory Be are in the Epistles, and the first half of the Hail Mary comes straight from Luke.

Some of the verses I’ve mentioned in the past to support the idea that those in heaven can hear us and do pray for us are:

Hebrews 12:1: “Therefore, since we are surrounded by so great a cloud of witnesses, let us rid ourselves of every burden and sin that clings to us and persevere in running the race that lies before us.” --For me, at least, this verse conjures up images of a vast, cheering crowd–intimately involved in the race going on down below.🙂

Revelation 8:3-4: “And another angel came and stood at the altar, having a golden censer; and there was given unto him much incense, that he should offer it with the prayers of all saints upon the golden altar which was before the throne. And the smoke of the incense, which came with the prayers of the saints, ascended up before God out of the angel’s hand.” --Obviously, the saints are praying for something. It doesn’t seem like much of a leap to guess that it’s us.
 
I’m not sure if this is the right category, but it does have to do with scripture a little.

I was talking to a protestant friend and she told me that the rosary is wrong because its not in the bible, and that the saints can’t here us so its pointless and wrong to pray for them.

Is there anything in the bible that talks about the saints being able to here our prayers?
Hi, Andrew.

Revelation 5:8 specifically describes saints in heaven, offering to God bowls of prayers gathered from Earth. First, the Bible catagorically shows here that the saints (or “holy ones” in other translations) are not only living in heaven, but hear prayers, for what could they give if they could not hear anything?

For more Scriptural support of prayer to the saints, you can refer to this Catholic Answers tract.

Before answering questions about the rosary, give your friend an open question: *“Where in the Bible does it say that everything you need to know to be a Christian is written in the Bible?” *There is are no such passages. If your friend is a trinitarian Protestant, challenge him to find “Trinity” in the Bible. The word is not there, but the concept is there in both old and new Testaments (Genesis adds: “Let Us make man in Our image…”; New Testament shows many examples in Christ’s words and actions of the Father and Holy Spirit).

Now, Martin Luther, the first Protestant, would not agree with your friend’s challenge of the rosary. In his Personal Prayer Book, Luther said,

"Our prayer should include the Mother of God . . . What the Hail Mary says is that all glory should be given to God, using these words: “Hail Mary, full of grace. The Lord is with thee; blessed art thou among women and blessed is the fruit of thy womb, Jesus Christ. Amen!” You see that these words are not concerned with prayer but purely with giving praise and honor . . . We can use the Hail Mary as a meditation in which we recite what grace God has given her. Second, we should add a wish that everyone may know and respect her " (Personal Prayer Book, 1522).

A rosary is simply a set of beads that aid a person in prayer. Here’s the key: the prayers done with rosary in hand are directly based on verses from the Bible. We aren’t praying to a rosary. A rosary is a tool, nothing more, that helps one concentrate.

This Catholic Answers tract details the elements of the prayers in the rosary.

If your friend still questions the use of the rosary under repetitive prayer, have him go back to Matthew 6:9. It says (NAB): “In praying, do not babble like the pagans, who think that they will be heard because of their many words.” Christ, here, warns us here not to make repetitive prayer (far from it: He does that Himself in the Garden of Gethsemane before his arrest), but to make prayers worthily to Someone that will hear, not to pagan gods as others have. The prayers of the Rosary, taken from the Bible, are thus neither empty or pagan.

If your friend still questions the tradition of the Rosary, point your friend to his own protestant Bible. By the time of the Protestant Reformation of 1517 or so, the Bible’s New Testament contained 46 books. But, by the tradition of a man, Luther, 7 of these books were put in an appendix: Tobias (Tobit), Judith, Baruch, Ecclesiasticus (Sirach), Wisdom, First and Second Maccabees and parts of Esther and Daniel. As later books were printed, the publishers removed these 7 books altogether just to save printing costs.

So why would his shortened version of the Bible, modified and used by a tradition defined by one man, be any more valid than a person merely reciting Scriptural prayer using a set of beads as a mnemonic?* Where in the Bible did it say that any one man can modify the Scriptures on his own authority?*

Is he not worried that his truncated Bible might not be complete? He should.
 
There is nothing in the Bible that tells us what the saints in heaven are doing. However, I believe it is clear that they cannot hear us, and I draw this conclusion from things like Luke 7:59-60 (‘And as they were stoning Stephen, he prayed, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.” And he knelt down and cried with a loud voice, “Lord, do not hold this sin against them.” And when he had said this, he fell asleep’ RSV emphasis mine), 1 Cor 15:16 (‘Then he appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom are still alive, though some have fallen asleep.’ RSV emphasis mine), and 1 Thes 4:13-15 (’ But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope. For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so **them also which sleep in Jesus **will God bring with him. For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.’ RSV emphasis mine). These verses are clear that those who have gone ahead of us are “asleep”. Can a person who is asleep hear, comprehend, and respond to anything that is said to them? While we may be able to “trick” a sleeping person into saying something, this is not being done with their full knowledge or understanding, much less their consent.

In regard to Mark 9:4, I suppose if a saint (like Moses or Elijah) appeared to you, then feel free to talk to them. The fact is, they talked to Jesus, not the others. So who should you pray to? In John 16:23, Jesus tells us " In that day you will ask nothing of me. Truly, truly, I say to you, if you ask anything of the Father, he will give it to you in my name." (RSV emphasis mine). I pray to the Father in the name of Jesus, and I trust that the Holy Spirit will guide my prayers. I don’t have to wonder if God will hear me, and even the Catholic Church won’t say you shouldn’t pray to God. Since Jesus made a way for me to go directly to the Father, why should I even consider bothering a “sleeping” saint? Does that mean I never ask anyone for prayer? Of course not! The point is, why bother someone who’s asleep, when there are many who are awake and nearby that would be willing, able, and happy to pray for me? (I shoudl also mention that the people I ask for prayer know me, and I know them. I may know something about a saint in heaven, but I don’t personally know any of the “recognized” saints in heaven (my dad passed away in 2000, so he could be a saint in heaven, but even though I know him, I will not pray to him and ask for intercession of any kind).

I guess what it boils down to is this - let the saints that are asleep, SLEEP! Let the saints that are around you (and all Christians are saints) join you in prayer. For everything, pray to the Father directly in the name of Jesus.
 
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Mark77:
Not everything is in the bible; “But there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.” (Jn 21:25)
So tell me, did Jesus say or do anything different than what we have recorded in Scripture? When the Disciples asked Him to teach them to pray, did he hand out rosaries, but that somehow it never got recorded for us in Scripture? I saw once where someone added something like “Blessed are they who bury the dead” to the beatitudes, but when I asked where that was recorded as part of the beatitudes that Jesus taught, I got no response. I know where it comes from, but it was not mentioned by Jesus when He taught the beatitudes (unless the Holy Spirit “forgot” to remind the inspired writer of Scripture to include that bit of information). The point is that what is in Scripture is representative of what Jesus taught, and what He will hold us responsible for.
“And as for the dead being raised, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the passage about the bush, how God said to him, ‘I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? 27 He is not God of the dead, but of the living; you are quite wrong.” MK 12:26-27)
This certainly tells us God can hear us, and that those who have gone ahead are certainly alive in Him. No question about it. But where does it indicate that these saints can hear your prayer?
“Therefore, since we are surrounded by so great a cloud of witnesses,…” (Heb 12:1)
How does this indicate they can hear your prayer? The “Therefore” at the beginning should tell you this is a continuation from the previous chapter, and this is where we hear about the “heros of the faith”. The “witness” we have of these people is their lives and examples. There is nothing that indicates they can hear your prayer.
 
Think of it this way. Are the saints in heaven? If they are in heaven, are they apart from Jesus? (read Scripture. If anyone has died in Christ, they are with Him eternally.)

So, you have heaven and you have people who are united in Christ. Now, tell me how these people could** not be aware of everything that Christ is aware of???**

Where in Scripture does it say, "Lo and when ye dieth you sleep, just as a mortal sleepeth, and while ye are with God and He is totally aware of everything, ye will just be snoring away and lack awareness of all things."
 
There is nothing in the Bible that tells us what the saints in heaven are doing. However, I believe it is clear that they cannot hear us, and I draw this conclusion from things like Luke 7:59-60 (‘And as they were stoning Stephen, he prayed, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.” And he knelt down and cried with a loud voice, “Lord, do not hold this sin against them.” And when he had said this, he fell asleep’ RSV emphasis mine), 1 Cor 15:16 (‘Then he appeared to more than five hundred brethren at one time, most of whom are still alive, though some have fallen asleep.’ RSV emphasis mine), and 1 Thes 4:13-15 (’ But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope. For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so **them also which sleep in Jesus **will God bring with him. For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.’ RSV emphasis mine). These verses are clear that those who have gone ahead of us are “asleep”. Can a person who is asleep hear, comprehend, and respond to anything that is said to them? While we may be able to “trick” a sleeping person into saying something, this is not being done with their full knowledge or understanding, much less their consent.

In regard to Mark 9:4, I suppose if a saint (like Moses or Elijah) appeared to you, then feel free to talk to them. The fact is, they talked to Jesus, not the others. So who should you pray to? In John 16:23, Jesus tells us " In that day you will ask nothing of me. Truly, truly, I say to you, if you ask anything of the Father, he will give it to you in my name." (RSV emphasis mine). I pray to the Father in the name of Jesus, and I trust that the Holy Spirit will guide my prayers. I don’t have to wonder if God will hear me, and even the Catholic Church won’t say you shouldn’t pray to God. Since Jesus made a way for me to go directly to the Father, why should I even consider bothering a “sleeping” saint? Does that mean I never ask anyone for prayer? Of course not! The point is, why bother someone who’s asleep, when there are many who are awake and nearby that would be willing, able, and happy to pray for me? (I shoudl also mention that the people I ask for prayer know me, and I know them. I may know something about a saint in heaven, but I don’t personally know any of the “recognized” saints in heaven (my dad passed away in 2000, so he could be a saint in heaven, but even though I know him, I will not pray to him and ask for intercession of any kind).

I guess what it boils down to is this - let the saints that are asleep, SLEEP! Let the saints that are around you (and all Christians are saints) join you in prayer. For everything, pray to the Father directly in the name of Jesus.
“Asleep” in this context simply means dead. St. Paul calls them the ‘dead in Christ’ later. Their physical bodies are dead, certainly. But not their souls, the essence of who they are, from which they pray (as do we). St. Paul is not giving a discourse on the saints’ ability to pray–his purpose in writing (as he says) is to dispel the fears of those who think the dead will not be included in the bodily Resurrection.

I find the idea that we shouldn’t bother those who are “sleeping” with a request for prayer ironic, considering Jesus’ words to his disciples in the Garden of Gethsemane. 🤷
 
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Moscati:
Revelation 8:3-4: “And another angel came and stood at the altar, having a golden censer; and there was given unto him much incense, that he should offer it with the prayers of all saints upon the golden altar which was before the throne. And the smoke of the incense, which came with the prayers of the saints, ascended up before God out of the angel’s hand.” --Obviously, the saints are praying for something. It doesn’t seem like much of a leap to guess that it’s us.
****This is an angel, not a saint (I am still waiting for an explanation on another thread about how angels became saints, especially since the Scriptures make a distinction between the two). Secondly, there is no mention of where the prayers of the saints came from. The angel was given incense to offer with the prayers on the altar. I suppose Psalms 141:2 could apply to the incense (“Let my prayer be counted as incense before thee, and the lifting up of my hands as an evening sacrifice!” RSV emphasis mine).
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Spencerian:
Revelation 5:8 specifically describes saints in heaven, offering to God bowls of prayers gathered from Earth. First, the Bible catagorically shows here that the saints (or “holy ones” in other translations) are not only living in heaven, but hear prayers, for what could they give if they could not hear anything?
The bowls of incense were offered by the elders (no mention of who they are, and there are only 24 of them), and what can we possibly offer to God that He has not given to us? You are assuming these are saints, and they are offering prayers that had been prayed to them. I don’t see that. It seems to me just as likely (in fact, more than likely from my perspective) that these elders were entrusted with the bowls, so that they could offer them at this point in time. As far as the text itself goes, this explanation is just as valid as the other. As far as all of Scripture, I would say this is a much more likely possibility.
Before answering questions about the rosary, give your friend an open question: “Where in the Bible does it say that everything you need to know to be a Christian is written in the Bible?” There is are no such passages.
"All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. " (2 Tim 3:16-17 RSV) If the Scriptures are able to teach, reprove, correct and train in righteousness in such a way that the man of God may be completey equipped for every good work, doesn’t that sound like the Scriptures contain everything we need to know to be a Christian?
If your friend is a trinitarian Protestant, challenge him to find “Trinity” in the Bible. The word is not there, but the concept is there in both old and new Testaments (Genesis adds: “Let Us make man in Our image…”; New Testament shows many examples in Christ’s words and actions of the Father and Holy Spirit).
Why would you use a Jehovah’s Witness argument (show me the word ‘Trinity’ in the Bible)? I don’t understand your reasoning here, since you should agree that God is three person in one God (Father, Son and Holy Spirit). So why argue about something you both agree on?
A rosary is simply a set of beads that aid a person in prayer. Here’s the key: the prayers done with rosary in hand are directly based on verses from the Bible. We aren’t praying to a rosary. A rosary is a tool, nothing more, that helps one concentrate.
Where is the verse that reads, “Holy Mary, mother of God, pray for us sinners, now and at the hour of our death”? Or is this something that Jesus taught that isn’t in Scripture? (Would He have called it a ‘Hail Mary’ or a ‘Hail Mom’?)
So why would his shortened version of the Bible, modified and used by a tradition defined by one man, be any more valid than a person merely reciting Scriptural prayer using a set of beads as a mnemonic? Where in the Bible did it say that any one man can modify the Scriptures on his own authority?
And what does this have to do with the rosary or prayers to the “sleeping” saints? This is a red herring! You’re trying to drag the focus off the topic at hand. I will quickly point out that the canon was not dogmatically defined until the Council of Trent in 1545, and that prior to that time many people believed as Jerome, that the dueterocanonical books were OK for reading in the Church and for edification, but not to be used to determine doctrine.
Tantum ergo:
Where in Scripture does it say, “Lo and when ye dieth you sleep, just as a mortal sleepeth, and while ye are with God and He is totally aware of everything, ye will just be snoring away and lack awareness of all things.”
I would remind you of the parable of the good shepherd. He left the 99 sheep to go search the one lost. When he found it, he carried it home (Luke 15:4-7). Look at verse 6 - “And when he comes home, **he calls **together his friends and his neighbors, saying to them, `Rejoice with me, for I have found my sheep which was lost.’” (RSV emphasis mine). If you read on, you’ll notice the same thing with the woman and the lost coin. People didn’t know about it UNTIL they were told (by the shepherd or the woman in the parables, but by God in heaven to the saints). Finally, I would ask where it says in Scripture that the saints that are asleep in Christ CAN hear your prayers and, based on those prayers, make intercession for you? I do not doubt that saints in heaven intercede for us on earth, but I beleive it is in the same way we pray for believers in other countries.
 
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Moscati:
“Asleep” in this context simply means dead. St. Paul calls them the ‘dead in Christ’ later. Their physical bodies are dead, certainly. But not their souls, the essence of who they are, from which they pray (as do we). St. Paul is not giving a discourse on the saints’ ability to pray–his purpose in writing (as he says) is to dispel the fears of those who think the dead will not be included in the bodily Resurrection.
Dead or asleep, the point is the same - what indicates that they can hear you?
I find the idea that we shouldn’t bother those who are “sleeping” with a request for prayer ironic, considering Jesus’ words to his disciples in the Garden of Gethsemane.
You are referring to the disciples, who were instructed to “watch and pray” with Him, but fell asleep while He prayed? How is this ironic? If you were with a group and asked them to pray with you, and you prayed for an hour, what would you do if you found the group sleeping? I have no doubt your reaction would be very different if they were “asleep in Christ”, as that would mean they were dead.
 
Dead or asleep, the point is the same - what indicates that they can hear you?

You are referring to the disciples, who were instructed to “watch and pray” with Him, but fell asleep while He prayed? How is this ironic? If you were with a group and asked them to pray with you, and you prayed for an hour, what would you do if you found the group sleeping? I have no doubt your reaction would be very different if they were “asleep in Christ”, as that would mean they were dead.
Cachonga:

It seems that the OP has had his question answered. It appears you may be debating only with yourself at this point.

Since your affiliation as “former Roman Catholic” implies to me that there is less of a theological issue or more of a serious personal issue regarding the Church and not with our information provided for the OP, I can only pray that the Holy Spirit can guide you better than we can. God bless.
 
I’m not sure if this is the right category, but it does have to do with scripture a little.

I was talking to a protestant friend and she told me that the rosary is wrong because its not in the bible, and that the saints can’t here us so its pointless and wrong to pray for them.

Is there anything in the bible that talks about the saints being able to here our prayers?
yes, you can show here where in Mat 6 v 7 that says “For they think that in their much speaking they may be heard.” so this proves we should pray to the saints.

Also you can show her John 14: 6 where the Lord says “6 Jesus saith to him: I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No man cometh to the Father, but by me” proving that we can use the Lords friends, the saints to pray to God.
 
=AndrewF1995;6689798]I’m not sure if this is the right category, but it does have to do with scripture a little.
I was talking to a protestant friend and she told me that the rosary is wrong because its not in the bible, and that the saints can’t here us so its pointless and wrong to pray for them.
Is there anything in the bible that talks about the saints being able to here our prayers?
NEVER EVER accept a protestants OWN PERSONAL understanding of the Bible. They are wrong when ever they profess does not coinside with Catholic Teaching.

**Rev. 21: 27 **“But nothing unclean shall enter it, nor any one who practices abomination or falsehood, but only those who are written in the Lamb’s book of life.”

Heb.12: 23 “and to the assembly of the first-born who are enrolled in heaven, and to a judge who is God of all, and to the spirits [SOULS] of just men made perfect”

1 Cor. 3: 13 “each man’s work will become manifest; for the Day will disclose it, because it will be revealed with fire, and the fire will test what sort of work each one has done. 14 If the work which any man has built on the foundation survives, he will receive a reward. If any man’s work is burned up, he will suffer loss, [Purgatory] though he himself will be saved, but only as through fire.

** Heb. 13: 7 **“Remember your leaders,[In prayer] those who spoke to you the word of God; consider the outcome of their life, [who are now deceased] and imitate their faith”

**2 Mac. 12: 39 –45 **“On the next day, as by that time it had become necessary, Judas and his men went to take up the bodies of the fallen and to bring them back to lie with their kinsmen in the sepulchres of their fathers. Then under the tunic of every one of the dead they found sacred tokens of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbids the Jews to wear. And it became clear to all that this was why these men had fallen. So they all blessed the ways of the Lord, the righteous Judge, who reveals the things that are hidden; and they turned to prayer, beseeching that the sin which had been committed might be wholly blotted out. And the noble Judas exhorted the people to keep themselves free from sin, for they had seen with their own eyes what had happened because of the sin of those who had fallen. He also took up a collection, man by man, to the amount of two thousand drachmas of silver, and sent it to Jerusalem to provide for a sin offering. In doing this he acted very well and honorably, taking account of the resurrection. For if he were not expecting that those who had fallen would rise again, it would have been superfluous and foolish to pray for the dead. But if he was looking to the splendid reward that is laid up for those who fall asleep in godliness, it was a holy and pious thought. Therefore he made atonement for the dead, that they might be delivered from their sin.”

This last one in not in Protstant bibles, becuase Luther removed Seven Entire Books from a God Inspired Bible 2Tim.3 Verses 16 to 17 “**All scripture is inspired by God **and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.”

***If you want to get this person thinkimg [open HIS KJB] to 2 Tim. 3:16-17… NOTE the word ALL". If this is true, and if the bible is true on what basis did Luther eliminate Seven Entire Books, as well as make numerious other changes of “God Inspired text” Di he know more or know better than God?? ***

Love and prayers,
Pat
 
Andrew,

This may answer some of your questions regarding saintly intercession and the rosary here.
 
Just a few, quick comments, (since, as Spencerian has pointed out, the OP has indicated that he/she has received the info he/she was looking for, and therefore we don’t need to be debating ourselves - whatever) -
Cashue, I don’t understand your reasoning. How does Matt 6:7 prove we should pray to the saints? and how do you figure that “I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No man cometh to the Father, but by me” (John 14:6) proves we can use the Lords friends in any way?
PJM, a true, hard-core Cathoic! Anyone who disagrees with the Catholic Church is automatically wrong! Your mind is made up and you refuse to be swayed by the facts. First, the topic was ‘Question about the saints’, not purgatory, which I believe your references pointed to. Second, I would be very careful about adding words to Scripture (such as adding [purgatory] to the 1 Cor 13 reference, or adding [in prayer] to the Heb 13:7 reference). I have looked at several versions (including the DR), and cannot find those additions anywhere. If these appear in your particular version, could you please tell us what version you’re using? Third. in regard to the 2 Mac. 12: 39 –45 reference, I notice that it says, “Then under the tunic of every one of the dead they found sacred tokens of the idols of Jamnia, which **the law forbids **the Jews to wear. And it became clear to all that this was why these men had fallen.” (emphasis mine). Isn’t idolatry a mortal sin? And since God killed them because of it, wouldn’t that be a JUDGEMENT against them? Granted, the offering of sacrifice for them was a nice gesture, but even the Catholic Church admits that there is no sacrifice that can get someone out of hell. In regard to Martin Luther taking books out of the Bible, I would just point out that the canon was not dogmatically declared until the Council of Trent in 1545. Prior to that, there were many people who held to the opinion of Jerome (which is that the dueterocanoncial books were fit to be read in Church for edification, but not to be used for determining doctrine). Since there was no dogmatic decree on the canon when Martin Luther “removed” the books (he actually placed them in a different section, and they were removed later by others, but not by Luther), there was no conflict with the Church on this matter.

And with that, I will follow the advice of Spencerian, and stop responding to anything on this thread!

Pax!
 
.… Third. in regard to the 2 Mac. 12: 39 –45 reference, I notice that it says, “Then under the tunic of every one of the dead they found sacred tokens of the idols of Jamnia, which **the law forbids **the Jews to wear. And it became clear to all that this was why these men had fallen.” (emphasis mine). Isn’t idolatry a mortal sin? And since God killed them because of it, wouldn’t that be a JUDGEMENT against them? Granted, the offering of sacrifice for them was a nice gesture, but even the Catholic Church admits that there is no sacrifice that can get someone out of hell. In regard to Martin Luther taking books out of the Bible, I would just point out that the canon was not dogmatically declared until the Council of Trent in 1545. Prior to that, there were many people who held to the opinion of Jerome (which is that the dueterocanoncial books were fit to be read in Church for edification, but not to be used for determining doctrine). Since there was no dogmatic decree on the canon when Martin Luther “removed” the books (he actually placed them in a different section, and they were removed later by others, but not by Luther), there was no conflict with the Church on this matter.

And with that, I will follow the advice of Spencerian, and stop responding to anything on this thread!

Pax!
my understanding is that Jerome later clarified his position and did include the deutrocanonicals in the vulgate.
He certainly showed his support for the extra sections of Daniel.
Why r U happy to agree with the NT canon of 380-390’s.

Re the macc verse
Catholics will still pray for someone who has died even if it appears they have commited mortal sin. It is for god to judge, they may of been mislead in thier beliefs and unaware of the implications of what they were doing, which I believe then makes it not a mortal sin.
 
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panevino:
my understanding is that Jerome later clarified his position and did include the deutrocanonicals in the vulgate.
He certainly showed his support for the extra sections of Daniel.
Why r U happy to agree with the NT canon of 380-390’s.
First of all, why are you bringing in a response from a thread on purgatory into this thread? Second, why are you bringing in questions on the canon into this thread? If you want to raise these questions, you should start a new thread, not try and hijack another thread on a different topic. If you specifically want a response from me, you can PM me easily enough without disrupting another thread. I will answer briefly, but will not answer any more questions off topic in this thread.

Jerome translated the deuterocanonical books because he was told to, but he made it clear that he did not consider them to be fully canonical. I am happy with the NT canon (part of which was recognized by Peter - 2 Peter 3:15-16) because the books were recognized as inspired by the early Church (long before 380-390’s). Furthermore, they are consistent in their teaching.
Re the macc verse
Catholics will still pray for someone who has died even if it appears they have commited mortal sin.
I don’t have a problem with praying FOR someone who died (although if they were in obvious sin, I tend to pary more for those left behind). My problem is praying TO someone who has died (like Peter, Paul, or Mary), There is nothing in Scripture that would indicate they can hear us. and consider this - if every Sunday the approximately 1 billion Catholics in the world made a quick, one second request of Mary, that would be over 33,000 people asking her for somthing every second! While we do not know what time is like in Heaven, what makes you think anyone (other than God, who we ARE instructed to pray TO) can hear and answer 33,000+ prayers per second? I know they story of “Well, Mary and the saints have all eternity to listen and respond to every prayer”. I agree the saints are “in eternity” and have forever to do things, but what makes you think they can respond to your specific prayer request in a timely (our time) manner? I find nothing in Scripture to indicate this is possible.
It is for god to judge, they may of been mislead in thier beliefs and unaware of the implications of what they were doing, which I believe then makes it not a mortal sin.
So would it be valid for an Amorite that was killed by Joshua at the command of God to say “But I thought I was serving the true god. I was mislead!”? What about the prophets of Baal that Elijah had killed after God accepted his offering (see 1 Kings 18). Could they claim to have been “mislead”, and therefore not guilty of mortal sin? Be that as it may, this still does not show the existence of purgatory.
 
Originally Posted by Cachonga
.… Third. in regard to the 2 Mac. 12: 39 –45 reference, I notice that it says, “Then under the tunic of every one of the dead they found sacred tokens of the idols of Jamnia, which the law forbids the Jews to wear. And it became clear to all that this was why these men had fallen.” (emphasis mine). Isn’t idolatry a mortal sin? And since God killed them because of it, wouldn’t that be a JUDGEMENT against them? Granted, the offering of sacrifice for them was a nice gesture, but even the Catholic Church admits that there is no sacrifice that can get someone out of hell. Pax!
=panevino; Re the macc verse
Catholics will still pray for someone who has died even if it appears they have commited mortal sin. It is for god to judge, they may of been mislead in thier beliefs and unaware of the implications of what they were doing, which I believe then makes it not a mortal sin.
***The understanding of sin and the nature and degree of sin was not as well defined in the OT as it is in the NT.

Certainly Yahweh frequently [and severly] punished the Hebrews for “pagan worship.” BUT there is also the very high probability of superstition, not so much idol worship in this case.

The CC Inspired and guided by the Holy Spirit, has defined three necessary conditions fo an act to be a mortal sin." 1. Serious matter [this could of and should have been], but might also just be superstition? 2. Knowledge that what your about to do will be a Mortal sin. [again we don’t know that this was so understood] and 3. Still desire to do it anyway. A DIRECT in your FACE to God. And again we don’t know this either.

So there is the possibility that in there hearts and minds they were not offending God so much as being cautious? ***

Love and prayers,
Pat
 
First of all, why are you bringing in a response from a thread on purgatory into this thread? Second, why are you bringing in questions on the canon into this thread? If you want to raise these questions, you should start a new thread, not try and hijack another thread on a different topic. If you specifically want a response from me, you can PM me easily enough without disrupting another thread. I will answer briefly, but will not answer any more questions off topic in this thread.
um … Ok…
You brought up the canon in this thread. ?
Jerome translated the deuterocanonical books because he was told to, but he made it clear that he did not consider them to be fully canonical.
not sure the 2nd part is complteley true about Baruch and the extra parts of daniel…
I am happy with the NT canon (part of which was recognized by Peter - 2 Peter 3:15-16) because the books were recognized as inspired by the early Church (long before 380-390’s). Furthermore, they are consistent in their teaching.
r u sure , my impression is that there was other possible NT books being considered scripture prior these dates, and that Clement 1 almost made it into the NT.
I don’t have a problem with praying FOR someone who died (although if they were in obvious sin, I tend to pary more for those left behind). My problem is praying TO someone who has died (like Peter, Paul, or Mary), There is nothing in Scripture that would indicate they can hear us. and consider this - if every Sunday the approximately 1 billion Catholics in the world made a quick, one second request of Mary, that would be over 33,000 people asking her for somthing every second! While we do not know what time is like in Heaven, what makes you think anyone (other than God, who we ARE instructed to pray TO) can hear and answer 33,000+ prayers per second? I know they story of “Well, Mary and the saints have all eternity to listen and respond to every prayer”. I agree the saints are “in eternity” and have forever to do things, but what makes you think they can respond to your specific prayer request in a timely (our time) manner? I find nothing in Scripture to indicate this is possible.
if Abraham could hear thoughts of richman in hades, if 24 elders and angels in heaven can present prayers of saints at altar, if martyred souls in heaven can interact with Jesus about those still on earth, if Elijah and Moses can interact with Jesus while he was on earth, If angels can interact with god given I’ll treatment of children, I think there is away that our prayer requests can be heard, are they all worthy of action? Can they be dealt with generally or some/all specifically?
So would it be valid for an Amorite that was killed by Joshua at the command of God to say “But I thought I was serving the true god. I was mislead!”? What about the prophets of Baal that Elijah had killed after God accepted his offering (see 1 Kings 18). Could they claim to have been “mislead”, and therefore not guilty of mortal sin? Be that as it may, this still does not show the existence of purgatory.
for god to judge as he knows hearts.
 
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