Question concerning NFP

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Hello all,

So since I’ve started browsing this forum, I’ve seen lots of talk concerning Natural Family Planning, and what I’ve gathered is that it is essentially a way in which a married couple can plan when to engage in intimacy dependent on whether or not they seek pregnancy. Is this the correct interpretation?

If so, here’s what I don’t understand… If birth control and contraceptives are a no-no because they allow people to avoid pregnancy while still having sexual relations, how is this method so different? I had a Catholic friend explain that from her understanding, this is okay because it is natural without the aid of a contraceptive or pill, but it’s still not adding up for me. Even if you’re avoiding a pregnancy naturally, you’re still avoiding it, and isn’t the primary function of sex (from the Church’s viewpoint) procreation?

I do disagree with the Church’s stance on birth control, but I’m not intending to judge this method… I just want to better understand it. 🙂
 
Here is how I look at it. God is smart. God could have designed women in a very different way, the way He designed so many other things - to only have relations when fertile, to only ovulate when we have sex…

For some reason, He created us to be able to have a cycle that we can detect.

Sex is for TWO reasons - babies AND bonding. Seems to me that is why God gave us the gift of using our brains and our bodies to both ends as is needed in our our life today where we are.
 
Your friend is correct. The sin is not avoiding pregnancy, which is the confusion. The sin is to intervene to prevent the natural action as designed. Catholics are allowed to avoid pregnancy under certain conditions.

Hope that helps
 
So since I’ve started browsing this forum, I’ve seen lots of talk concerning Natural Family Planning, and what I’ve gathered is that it is essentially a way in which a married couple can plan when to engage in intimacy dependent on whether or not they seek pregnancy. Is this the correct interpretation?
Natural family planning is a system of oberving a woman’s signs of fertility. It can be used to both avoid or achieve a pregnancy. Many women use it when they are trying to conceive, and many use it when they desire to space their children.
If so, here’s what I don’t understand… If birth control and contraceptives are a no-no because they allow people to avoid pregnancy while still having sexual relations, how is this method so different?
This is a common misunderstanding of Church teaching. The Church does not teach that avoiding pregnancy is immoral for a just reason. Birth control is not intrinsically wrong.

The Church teaches ONLY that contraception is an immoral **means **of birth control.

What the Church teaches is that you cannot engage in the act of sexual relations and at the same time take an *action *to render it infertile. There is no action taken when engaging in sexual relations while the woman is naturally infertile. Each act of intercourse must be objectively unitive AND procreative-- meaning unaltered in any way.

If a couple wants to space/avoid they are free to refrain from sexual relations. NFP is information only-- they can use the information to make a decision about engaging or abstaining.
I had a Catholic friend explain that from her understanding, this is okay because it is natural without the aid of a contraceptive or pill, but it’s still not adding up for me. Even if you’re avoiding a pregnancy naturally, you’re still avoiding it, and isn’t the primary function of sex (from the Church’s viewpoint) procreation?
Yes, but here you are still confusing avoiding (not intrinsically wrong) with the MEANS of avoiding-- contraception (always intrinsically wrong). Abstaining is always a moral option.

Contraception profanes the sexual union of husband and wife. Abstaining does not.
 
NFP is a lot different than using artificial birth control. Any act of sexual relations that spills the seed is wrong. NFP can also be abused you must have good reason to use it, how do you know your reason is good? Is through prayer, God directs us, when we think we are done all the sudden you or your husband or both will have such a strong desire you won’t be able to deny it. Everyones mission is different and only God knows what is right for you, just open your hearts and do not go against what you feel is right and ever question that strong desire to have a little beautiful baby. I have seven children one I lost at 12 days old. It took losing her to totally let go and let God have control. Don’t wait for such a tragedy. Don’t get me wrong I use NFP for spacing and God just puts in my heart so strongly then I think of the baby in heaven and think I couldn’t imagine facing God or her and think I prevented any child that was meant to be, that had a mission. You know I use to be a control freak. I wanted control in my bills, husband, children, house, and how many children I wanted. Now that I gave that all to God I am less stressed, happier , and most of all at peace. I do my part God does the rest. God bless!
 
I had a Catholic friend explain that from her understanding, this is okay because it is natural without the aid of a contraceptive or pill, but it’s still not adding up for me. Even if you’re avoiding a pregnancy naturally, you’re still avoiding it, and isn’t the primary function of sex (from the Church’s viewpoint) procreation?
First off I’d like to clarify your statement with this quote from the Catechism
2363
The spouses’ union achieves the twofold end of marriage: the good of the spouses themselves and the transmission of life. These two meanings or values of marriage cannot be separated without altering the couple’s spiritual life and compromising the goods of marriage and the future of the family.
Code:
The conjugal love of man and woman thus stands under the twofold obligation of fidelity and fecundity.
The TWOFOLD end of marital unity is for the good of the spouses AND for the transmission of life.
The two cannot be separated.
NFP does not separate the two… artificial contraception does.

Artificial contraception tells God… I want sex on MY terms and with MY timing… (without resulting in pregnancy, whenever I want!)
NFP uses the natural cycle that God Himself designed. It requires ABSTAINING during the fertile phase of the wife’s cycle (which is designed by God)… so if avoiding conception is prayerfully deemed necessary (which is morally okay!) you choose to sacrifice your desires to God’s design… not close Him off and proclaim that YOU are masters of that design and are “allowed” sex JUST for the “good of the spouses”… it MUST not be separated from the procreative aspect (which, by the way, does NOT mean “fertile”… procreative means “ordered toward life”)
 
Simply stated, married couples may be intimate at any time they wish. That being said, such intimacy must not be distorted by chemicals and devices that render it infertile by anything outside of nature. On certain days of the month and after a certain age or as the result of disease or injury women and men may or not be fertile any longer or on that particular day.

With out regard to the presence or absence of fertility, the intimate act, if chosen, must be such that at the end of the act, a action that in reality or symbolically could result in conception must take place. (Keeping this PG-13).

Using a condom or pill, etc. makes the end of this act infertile. This is a sinful use of acts reserved to the married. It is like a priest celebrating mass with pizza and beer. The act is totally distorted.

On may for serious reason, reserve the act of marriage to a certain time as one married can licitly engage in the marital act at any time. One is not free to distort that act at any time or for any reason.
 
The Church teaches ONLY that contraception is an immoral **means **of birth control.

What the Church teaches is that you cannot engage in the act of sexual relations and at the same time take an *action *to render it infertile. There is no action taken when engaging in sexual relations while the woman is naturally infertile. Each act of intercourse must be objectively unitive AND procreative-- meaning unaltered in any way.
1ke, I appreciate the clear explanation you’ve given lauramelissa. You obviously understand the Church’s teaching well. However, consider this point regarding “there is no action taken when engaging in sexual relations while the woman is natually infertile”–
didn’t the woman that day or even down to the moment she and her spouse decided to have relations take the action of using scientific knowledge to determine that she was natually infertile? She had to act by either taking her temperature, checking cervical mucus, etc. True, they are not “taking action” by putting on a condom, inserting a diaphragm, or swallowing a pill, but you cannot deny that “no action” is taken when a couple uses nfp. There is a problem with semantics here and another explanation should be provided to explain the teaching.

A man and woman who desire no children at all or no more children than they already have can take action to avoid the fertile period and only utilize the infertile period to have sexual relations, thus preventing any children from being born. I have a difficult time believing that this action is morally superior to those who use contraceptives (except abortifacients).

Those who take no action at all to render the sexual act infertile are the ones who use absolutely nothing: no barriers, no hormones, no scientific knowledge of the fertility cycle, nor natural contraceptive methods such as withdrawal.

Why don’t people just make is simpler to understand by stating that contraceptives are wrong because they directly block egg and sperm from meeting, thus preventing a life from coming into existence? You could argue that using the infertile period is morally superior to using contraceptives because there is no life to be blocked. But wait a minute??? Didn’t the couple intentionally block life by avoiding the fertile period??? IMHO, this is why there is a flaw in the teaching and why I feel like I always go in circles with this discussion.

Your comments (and anyone else’s) would be appreciated.

Respecfully,
Joya
 
However, consider this point regarding “there is no action taken when engaging in sexual relations while the woman is natually infertile”–
didn’t the woman that day or even down to the moment she and her spouse decided to have relations take the action of using scientific knowledge to determine that she was natually infertile?
It doesn’t matter what she does regarding *determining *she is infertile.

The couple takes no action to *render *the act infertile.
She had to act by either taking her temperature, checking cervical mucus, etc. True, they are not “taking action” by putting on a condom, inserting a diaphragm, or swallowing a pill, but you cannot deny that “no action” is taken when a couple uses nfp. There is a problem with semantics here and another explanation should be provided to explain the teaching.
They take no action to render the sex act infertile.

There is no problem with semantics at all.
A man and woman who desire no children at all or no more children than they already have can take action to avoid the fertile period and only utilize the infertile period to have sexual relations, thus preventing any children from being born. I have a difficult time believing that this action is morally superior to those who use contraceptives (except abortifacients).
A couple who contracepts take an action to engage in a sex act while simultaneously rendering that act infertile by trying to stop its natural end.

A couple who has sex during an infertile time takes no action to stop the natural end of that act of intercourse.

These are not equivalent acts, morally.
Those who take no action at all to render the sexual act infertile are the ones who use absolutely nothing: no barriers, no hormones, no scientific knowledge of the fertility cycle, nor natural contraceptive methods such as withdrawal.
This is untrue. A person practicing NFP takes no action to render a sex act infertile.
Why don’t people just make is simpler to understand by stating that contraceptives are wrong because they directly block egg and sperm from meeting, thus preventing a life from coming into existence?
Because that is not the reason it is wrong.
Didn’t the couple intentionally block life by avoiding the fertile period???
No.
 
1ke,
Ok, rendering the act infertile and determining infertility sounds like hair-splitting to me. But fair enough, I understand your argument though I disagree.

On another note, you simply are wrong when you state,“because that is not the reason it is wrong.” This is what I have heard on Catholic radio itself. Also, a friend of mine called Catholic Answers asking if it was moral to use contraception if another pregancy would be dangerous. The apologist himself said, “No, you cannot block life.”

I will be consulting the Catechism and the encyclicals to get more info.
 
Hi Joya
Let me help you out, the core of your comments rely in heart to the use of the word “contraception” the medical definition and thus the hair splitting. The Medical definition is essentially ~”any action designed to prevent pregnancy” and thus your argument aligns however the church definition is different more like ~”actions designed to prevent the natural course of relations” . SO to define the sides of the split hair the use of time to prevent pregnancy qualifies to science as contraception, however theologians point out that knowing the stag of the fertility cycle does not change the fertility. The theological finding is thus the knowledge to engage or remain celibate may change the decision to act but not the natural course of the relation.

Hope that helps

*Recourse to Infertile Periods
  1. Now as We noted earlier (no. 3), some people today raise the objection against this particular doctrine of the Church concerning the moral laws governing marriage, that human intelligence has both the right and responsibility to control those forces of irrational nature which come within its ambit and to direct them toward ends beneficial to man. Others ask on the same point whether it is not reasonable in so many cases to use artificial birth control if by so doing the harmony and peace of a family are better served and more suitable conditions are provided for the education of children already born. To this question We must give a clear reply. The Church is the first to praise and commend the application of human intelligence to an activity in which a rational creature such as man is so closely associated with his Creator. But she affirms that this must be done within the limits of the order of reality established by God.
If therefore there are well-grounded reasons for spacing births, arising from the physical or psychological condition of husband or wife, or from external circumstances, the Church teaches that married people may then take advantage of the natural cycles immanent in the reproductive system and engage in marital intercourse only during those times that are infertile, thus controlling birth in a way which does not in the least offend the moral principles which We have just explained. (20)

Neither the Church nor her doctrine is inconsistent when she considers it lawful for married people to take advantage of the infertile period but condemns as always unlawful the use of means which directly prevent conception, even when the reasons given for the later practice may appear to be upright and serious. In reality, these two cases are completely different. In the former the married couple rightly use a faculty provided them by nature. In the later they obstruct the natural development of the generative process. It cannot be denied that in each case the married couple, for acceptable reasons, are both perfectly clear in their intention to avoid children and wish to make sure that none will result. But it is equally true that it is exclusively in the former case that husband and wife are ready to abstain from intercourse during the fertile period as often as for reasonable motives the birth of another child is not desirable. And when the infertile period recurs, they use their married intimacy to express their mutual love and safeguard their fidelity toward one another. In doing this they certainly give proof of a true and authentic love. PPIV 1968*
vatican.va/holy_father/paul_vi/encyclicals/documents/hf_p-vi_enc_25071968_humanae-vitae_en.html

BTW - Others cite different encyclals which appear to disagree, however I have not researched them yet
 
1ke,
Ok, rendering the act infertile and determining infertility sounds like hair-splitting to me. But fair enough, I understand your argument though I disagree.
One is acting against an intrinsic good, i.e., something good in itself, the othr is simply studying and recognizing the signs and symptoms of the good – a world of difference in Catholic moral theology.
On another note, you simply are wrong when you state,“because that is not the reason it is wrong.” This is what I have heard on Catholic radio itself. Also, a friend of mine called Catholic Answers asking if it was moral to use contraception if another pregancy would be dangerous. The apologist himself said, “No, you cannot block life.”
I will be consulting the Catechism and the encyclicals to get more info.
Here are some Church quotes to consider in your search for the truth of this matter:

1643 “Conjugal love involves a totality, in which all the elements of the person enter - appeal of the body and instinct, power of feeling and affectivity, aspiration of the spirit and of will. It aims at a deeply personal unity, a unity that, beyond union in one flesh, leads to forming one heart and soul; it demands indissolubility and faithfulness in definitive mutual giving; and it is open to fertility. In a word it is a question of the normal characteristics of all natural conjugal love, but with a new significance which not only purifies and strengthens them, but raises them to the extent of making them the expression of specifically Christian values.” (CCC)

2370 Periodic continence, that is, the methods of birth regulation based on self-observation and the use of infertile periods, is in conformity with the objective criteria of morality. These methods respect the bodies of the spouses, encourage tenderness between them, and favor the education of an authentic freedom. In contrast, “every action which, whether in anticipation of the conjugal act, or in its accomplishment, or in the development of its natural consequences, proposes, whether as an end or as a means, to render procreation impossible” is intrinsically evil:

Thus the innate language that expresses the total reciprocal self-giving of husband and wife is overlaid, through contraception, by an objectively contradictory language, namely, that of not giving oneself totally to the other. This leads not only to a positive refusal to be open to life but also to a falsification of the inner truth of conjugal love, which is called upon to give itself in personal totality. . . . The difference, both anthropological and moral, between contraception and recourse to the rhythm of the cycle . . . involves in the final analysis two irreconcilable concepts of the human person and of human sexuality. (CCC)
Q. 2.When the uterus (e.g., as a result of previous Caesarian sections) is in a state such that while not constituting in itself a present risk to the life or health of the woman, nevertheless is foreseeably incapable of carrying a future pregnancy to term without danger to the mother, danger which in some cases could be serious, is it licit to remove the uterus (hysterectomy) in order to prevent a possible future danger deriving from conception?
R. Negative.
Q. 3.In the same situation as in no. 2, is it licit to substitute tubal ligation, also called “uterine isolation,” for the hysterectomy, since the same end would be attained of averting the risks of a possible pregnancy by means of a procedure which is much simpler for the doctor and less serious for the woman, and since in addition, in some cases, the ensuing sterility might be reversible?
R. Negative.
From the moral point of view, the cases of hysterectomy and “uterine isolation” in the circumstances described in nos. 2 and 3 are different. These fall into the moral category of direct sterilization which in the Congregation of the Doctrine of the Faith’s document Quaecumque Sterilizatio (AAS LXVIII 1976, 738-740, no. 1) is defined as an action « whose sole, immediate effect is to render the generative faculty incapable of procreation ». And the same document continues: « It (direct sterilization) is absolutely forbidden … according to the teaching of the Church, even when it is motivated by a subjectively right intention of curing or preventing a physical or psychological ill-effect which is foreseen or feared as a result of pregnancy ».
During an audience granted to the undersigned Prefect, the Sovereign Pontiff John Paul II approved these responses adopted in an ordinary session of the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, and ordered them to be published.
Rome, at the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, the 31st of July 1993.
  • Joseph Card. Ratzinger
    Prefect
  • Alberto Bovone
    Titular Archbishop of Caesarea in Numidia
    Secretary
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_31071994_uterine-isolation_en.html
 
Hello all,

So since I’ve started browsing this forum, I’ve seen lots of talk concerning Natural Family Planning, and what I’ve gathered is that it is essentially a way in which a married couple can plan when to engage in intimacy dependent on whether or not they seek pregnancy. Is this the correct interpretation?

If so, here’s what I don’t understand… If birth control and contraceptives are a no-no because they allow people to avoid pregnancy while still having sexual relations, how is this method so different? I had a Catholic friend explain that from her understanding, this is okay because it is natural without the aid of a contraceptive or pill, but it’s still not adding up for me. Even if you’re avoiding a pregnancy naturally, you’re still avoiding it, and isn’t the primary function of sex (from the Church’s viewpoint) procreation?

I do disagree with the Church’s stance on birth control, but I’m not intending to judge this method… I just want to better understand it. 🙂
You are not allowed to disagree with the Church on birth control. It is a matter of faith and/or morals. You may end up in hell if you keep disagreeing. Just warning you. On judgment day dont say you werent told.
 
Hi Setter and Texas Roofer,

Thanks for your explanations, made with charity, I might add.

I did not know that some claim that the encyclicals contradict one another.

Take care,
Joya
 
Hi Setter and Texas Roofer,

Thanks for your explanations, made with charity, I might add.

I did not know that some claim that the encyclicals contradict one another.

Take care,
Joya
You might also want to look into Theology of the Body or one of Christopher Wests explanations of it. The marital act itself has a meaning and is a symbol of the relationship within the Trinity. When you introduce artificial things into that relationship that do not belong there you tamper and sometimes destroy that meaning.

There are several articles here that will explain a bit more.

catholiceducation.org/articles/sexuality/se0109.html
 
1ke, I appreciate the clear explanation you’ve given lauramelissa. You obviously understand the Church’s teaching well. However, consider this point regarding “there is no action taken when engaging in sexual relations while the woman is natually infertile”–
didn’t the woman that day or even down to the moment she and her spouse decided to have relations take the action of using scientific knowledge to determine that she was natually infertile? She had to act by either taking her temperature, checking cervical mucus, etc. True, they are not “taking action” by putting on a condom, inserting a diaphragm, or swallowing a pill, but you cannot deny that “no action” is taken when a couple uses nfp. There is a problem with semantics here and another explanation should be provided to explain the teaching.

A man and woman who desire no children at all or no more children than they already have can take action to avoid the fertile period and only utilize the infertile period to have sexual relations, thus preventing any children from being born. I have a difficult time believing that this action is morally superior to those who use contraceptives (except abortifacients).

Those who take no action at all to render the sexual act infertile are the ones who use absolutely nothing: no barriers, no hormones, no scientific knowledge of the fertility cycle, nor natural contraceptive methods such as withdrawal.

Why don’t people just make is simpler to understand by stating that contraceptives are wrong because they directly block egg and sperm from meeting, thus preventing a life from coming into existence? You could argue that using the infertile period is morally superior to using contraceptives because there is no life to be blocked. But wait a minute??? Didn’t the couple intentionally block life by avoiding the fertile period??? IMHO, this is why there is a flaw in the teaching and why I feel like I always go in circles with this discussion.

Your comments (and anyone else’s) would be appreciated.

Respecfully,
Joya
This is the most excellent post bringing up objections to the use of the NFP as a contraceptive method. Let me bring up another example which better illustrates this very same point.

God ordered the Israelites to observe the Sabbath, and do not engage in works on that day. God even said that a person can only do some light work around the house or property, but he is forbidden to travel further than 500 paces from his belongings…so, what did the Jews do to circumvent God’s commandment?..they went 499 paces away from their belongings, and dropped a handkerchief, then from that point on they went another 499 paces and dropped another one, and so on… So in essence they were never further away than 499 paces from their belongings, which technicially meant they were observing God’s commandment…yet they were miles away from their homes. LOL!

NFP does EXACTLY THE SAME THING THE JEWS DID with regard to Sabbath as a resting day. Technically NFP does not circumvent the teaching of the RCC, yet it does exactly what the Church forbids. It uses the NFP AS A METHOD OF BIRTH CONTROL to avoid pregnancy, by carefully abstaining on a woman’s fertile period, and engaging in sexual activity on her INFERTILE PERIOD ONLY! Thus, those couples who MISUSE NFP for anything But procreation are doing exactly the same thing the Jews were doing with regard to Sabbath.

And what about those who want to space out the birth of their children?..here’s a question…what if one decided to use NFP for contraceptive purposes ONLY, for the next 5 years to space out childbirths…yet once the 5 years are up, they unilaterally postpone of the next childbirth for another 5 years by avoiding pregnancy using the same method?.. and then repeat it for another one…in essence circumventing the teachings of the Church which forbids the use “OF ANY ACTION” WHICH FRUSTATES THE PROCREATION PURPOSE of the conjugal love (sexual intercourse) Isn’t that action promotes only the selfishness of such union? They never intended to create a new life in the first place, and they misused NFP selfishly…

All these examples illustrate how easily one can circumvent the teaching of the RCC…the truth lies in the INTENT of the heart. Unfortunately no one knows the real intent of the heart…not one, but God…
 
On another note, you simply are wrong when you state,“because that is not the reason it is wrong.” This is what I have heard on Catholic radio itself. Also, a friend of mine called Catholic Answers asking if it was moral to use contraception if another pregancy would be dangerous. The apologist himself said, “No, you cannot block life.”
The Church teaches couples to keep the marital act open to its natural end, which doesn’t necessarily have to mean “open to life”.

When we’re fertile, the natural end of the marital act is pregnancy. When we’re infertile, regardless of the reason, (pregnancy, breastfeeding, menopause, natural cycles) the natural end of the marital act is not pregnancy.

The information gathered with NFP is useful for a couple spacing pregnancies because it helps them to predict the natural end of the marital act at any given time. They may keep the egg and sperm from meeting by way of periodic abstinence, but I think you’re right, the use of NFP in no way enables a couple to “block life” like contraception does.

I’d bet that 1ke meant it’s acceptable to keep egg and sperm from meeting (by timing sex to occur during natural infertility) but not by “blocking life”.
 
Hi tr1954

I think you missed this

*Recourse to Infertile Periods

If therefore there are well-grounded reasons for spacing births, arising from the physical or psychological condition of husband or wife, or from external circumstances, the Church teaches that married people may then take advantage of the natural cycles immanent in the reproductive system and engage in marital intercourse only during those times that are infertile, thus controlling birth in a way which does not in the least offend the moral principles which We have just explained. (20)

Neither the Church nor her doctrine is inconsistent when she considers it lawful for married people to take advantage of the infertile period but condemns as always unlawful the use of means which directly prevent conception, even when the reasons given for the later practice may appear to be upright and serious. In reality, these two cases are completely different. In the former the married couple rightly use a faculty provided them by nature. In the later they obstruct the natural development of the generative process.** It cannot be denied that in each case the married couple, for acceptable reasons, are both perfectly clear in their intention to avoid children and wish to make sure that none will result.** But it is equally true that it is exclusively in the former case that husband and wife are ready to abstain from intercourse during the fertile period as often as for reasonable motives the birth of another child is not desirable. And when the infertile period recurs, they use their married intimacy to express their mutual love and safeguard their fidelity toward one another. In doing this they certainly give proof of a true and authentic love. * - PPVI 1968

vatican.va/holy_father/paul_vi/encyclicals/documents/hf_p-vi_enc_25071968_humanae-vitae_en.html
 
Hi tr1954

I think you missed this

Recourse to Infertile Periods

If therefore there are well-grounded reasons for spacing births, arising from the physical or psychological condition of husband or wife, or from external circumstances, the Church teaches that married people may then take advantage of the natural cycles immanent in the reproductive system and engage in marital intercourse only during those times that are infertile, thus controlling birth in a way which does not in the least offend the moral principles which We have just explained. (20)

Neither the Church nor her doctrine is inconsistent when she considers it lawful for married people to take advantage of the infertile period but condemns as always unlawful the use of means which directly prevent conception, even when the reasons given for the later practice may appear to be upright and serious. In reality, these two cases are completely different. In the former the married couple rightly use a faculty provided them by nature. In the later they obstruct the natural development of the generative process.** It cannot be denied that in each case the married couple, for acceptable reasons, are both perfectly clear in their intention to avoid children and wish to make sure that none will result.** But it is equally true that it is exclusively in the former case that husband and wife are ready to abstain from intercourse during the fertile period as often as for reasonable motives the birth of another child is not desirable. And when the infertile period recurs, they use their married intimacy to express their mutual love and safeguard their fidelity toward one another. In doing this they certainly give proof of a true and authentic love. - PPVI 1968

vatican.va/holy_father/paul_vi/encyclicals/documents/hf_p-vi_enc_25071968_humanae-vitae_en.html
Here’s the problem I’m having…how can I reconcile this:

“Neither the Church nor her doctrine is inconsistent when she considers it lawful for married people to take advantage of the infertile period but condemns as always unlawful the use of means which directly prevent conception, even when the reasons given for the later practice may appear to be upright and serious”

What is “ALWAYS UNLAWFUL the use of means which directly prevent conception”?

Isn’t the INTENT OF THE USE OF MEANS TO PREVENT CONCEPTION IS ALWAYS WRONG?

In other words, if my intent is to prevent conception, and I am using a woman’s infertile period EXCLUSSIVELY to obtain that goal…by relying on NFP’s considerable success in this method…isn’t that wrong?

If my intentions are selfish…by that I mean, I DO NOT INTEND TO IMPREGNATE a woman in any way to have a baby…by using the contraceptive method of NFP…thus using sexual intercourse in a self gratifying way ONLY, and EXCLUSSIVELY…isn’t that wrong? I really don’t know how could I be more direct in my question, especially that today couples are using NFP exactly for that reason alone…this points out an apparent conflict in the stance of the Church, and the real end of NFP. What exactly is the real goal of NFP in this case I just described? The NFP is used in a contraceptive way, as a method TO PREVENT PREGNANCY!

This is where I’m having difficulty understanding the morality of the issue…on one hand …“the use of means is unlawful to directly prevent conception” (or pregnancy)…but it is OK to use NFP (which does prevent conception, or pregnancy). To me that is a paradox.

I always thought that “the intent” differentiates the right from wrong, and all my examples point to that. When I bring this up, then there are all kind of objections, which is surprising… Am I right to assume that in this case INTENT is irrelevant?
 
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