T
Texas_Roofer
Guest
the teachings on intending to avoid pregnancy, vs the teaching on artificial means of contraception, vs the teaching on marriage, vs the teaching on sex are not the same. These teachings do not contradict each other. understanding how to synchronize the teaching is the issueHere’s the problem I’m having…how can I reconcile this:
“Neither the Church nor her doctrine is inconsistent when she considers it lawful for married people to take advantage of the infertile period but condemns as always unlawful the use of means which directly prevent conception, even when the reasons given for the later practice may appear to be upright and serious”
What is “ALWAYS UNLAWFUL the use of means which directly prevent conception”?
the Pope & Magisterium say noIsn’t the INTENT OF THE USE OF MEANS TO PREVENT CONCEPTION IS ALWAYS WRONG?
I think you are asking about marriage here not sexIn other words, if my intent is to prevent conception, and I am using a woman’s infertile period EXCLUSSIVELY to obtain that goal…by relying on NFP’s considerable success in this method…isn’t that wrong?
I think you are asking about sex hereIf my intentions are selfish…by that I mean, I DO NOT INTEND TO IMPREGNATE a woman in any way to have a baby…by using the contraceptive method of NFP…thus using sexual intercourse in a self gratifying way ONLY, and EXCLUSSIVELY…isn’t that wrong?
are you back on the marriage issue?I really don’t know how could I be more direct in my question, especially that today couples are using NFP exactly for that reason alone…this points out an apparent conflict in the stance of the Church, and the real end of NFP. What exactly is the real goal of NFP in this case I just described? The NFP is used in a contraceptive way, as a method TO PREVENT PREGNANCY!
for years we were taught the standards was “grave reason” now we are told “serious reason”This is where I’m having difficulty understanding the morality of the issue…on one hand …“the use of means is unlawful to directly prevent conception” (or pregnancy)…but it is OK to use NFP (which does prevent conception, or pregnancy). To me that is a paradox.
Intent is the key issue balancing child care, health, marriage, and acting morally. If that is the intent the participant is okay.I always thought that “the intent” differentiates the right from wrong, and all my examples point to that. When I bring this up, then there are all kind of objections, which is surprising… Am I right to assume that in this case INTENT is irrelevant?