Question for all protestants

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But you have not yet explained how it is you know what God’s interpretation is of His Word.
He whispers the answers in my ear.
Wow.

In all my years of discourse with Christians, I have never heard anyone else claim that God whispers in his ear the interpretations that are correct for Bible verses.

So are we to understand that when your profession of God’s “whispers” in your ear are in contradiction to the Church’s, that yours is the infallible and correct profession?
 
Yes, but not much time elapsed before it was written.
But if something came BEFORE [A], then it cannot be said to have come FROM [A], correct?

So it’s utterly nonsensical for you claim that bishops came as a result of the New Testament writings, when they existed BEFORE a single word of the NT was ever put to writ.
 
Wow! what a long thread. No, I am not going to read all of it. Seems everything any Christians have ever disagreed about has made its way into the thread.

My take on the original question. Sometimes more than one person can be right…or wrong. Sometimes I can’t know. Sometimes I don’t need to know. When I need to know I can rely on God’s guidance. If I search I will find.
 
God’s command is that we love Him with our entire MIND, heart, soul and strength, Patat.

These discussions on the CAFS are part of the way that we attempt to understand Him and His Revelation, and thereby love Him with our MIND.

Thus, some things we discuss here are of great import–for it may be to one’s detriment if she dismisses, say, the Eucharist, with the thought, “Well, more than one person can be right.”

Either the Catholic position on the Eucharist is correct, or it is a monstrous act we are doing in worshipping a wafer.

Do you see how some things cannot be both true and not true at the same time?
 
Be careful of the convenience of blaming Roman law. The Jews also “used” Roman law to crucify Christ. Furthermore, it was part of Jewish law to execute lawbreakers, even disobedient children. I wonder if the Judaizers lost laying circumcision on the church but later won with legalistic justice, at the expense or the foresaking of mercy and grace , which is also Old Testament ?
I was also thinking this. Didn’t Pilate wash his hands in a way to get rid of guilt when turning over Jesus? How is this any different than the Church turning over heretics to be burned?
 
I was also thinking this. Didn’t Pilate wash his hands in a way to get rid of guilt when turning over Jesus? How is this any different than the Church turning over heretics to be burned?
Sources for the Church tuning over heretics to be burned, please.
 
Rinnie, you keep saying this, but you haven’t presented any sources to confirm this.

Look, as I’ve said before (here and here), there was no portion of Medieval European life that the Church did not influence. There was no separation between secular and religious life. The very concept was first articulated by Luther. Compare Luther’s concept of the Two Kingdoms with the Roman Catholic Unam sanctam. Please note where the pope claims to wield both the Sword of Religious Life and the Sword of Civil Law.

Take a read, and then give a thoughtful response. I won’t consideranother diversion as a proper response.
You continue to blame the RCC and yet heresy was not a Religious crime but a crime against the State at that time. Heresy and Treason were the same crime. You continue to state that the RCC had control over the law and this is not true.

Since we need souces you need to first provide your source that heresy was not a crime against the State it was only a crime fully the responsibility of the Church to convict someone and they had the power to burn heretics at the stake.

If you want to discuss this matter of what happened and who was to blame and not to blame. Make another tread, and I will be glad to admit the faults of both leaders at that time.

But show me the official Church teaching that says the Church says you should burn heretics at the stake. If you cannot the buck ends here.

Can we please get to the question at hand and address my question on who has authority to correct one Protestant over another and where does that authority stem from.

I truly want an answer, and all I get is distractions from the question at bay.

Show me where the Pope at that time made a infallible Church teaching stating it was from God that this must be done. Show me and you win. If you cannot provide that can we PLEASE get to my question.
 
Wow.

In all my years of discourse with Christians, I have never heard anyone else claim that God whispers in his ear the interpretations that are correct for Bible verses.

So are we to understand that when your profession of God’s “whispers” in your ear are in contradiction to the Church’s, that yours is the infallible and correct profession?
I know… When I confronted him on this - he went off to another tangent, go figure ;).

And, BTW - he denied it being a lame attempt at humor. Which means he is being serious… :gopray: We need to pray for him.
 
I was also thinking this. Didn’t Pilate wash his hands in a way to get rid of guilt when turning over Jesus? How is this any different than the Church turning over heretics to be burned?
Christ and his Church are one. As he said to St Paul Saul Saul why are you persecuting ME!! Paul was persecuting the Church.

Now you are saying the Church is guilty of turning over heretics to be burned. First you say it is a Doctrine of the RCC that Heretics should be burned at the stakes.

Can you at least make up your mind of what you are accusing here. Do you even know?

Did the Church leaders at that time hand heretics to the State that were guilty? Who denies that.

You said you have proof it is a teachng of the RCC and Church doctrine. Show me the Church doctrine that all heretics are to be burned at the stakes. Because if its Church Doctrine its as much Church doctrine now as then. Church doctrine does not change.

So please as I asked before. show it or move on and start aother thread and quit derailing my question. I have let it go on long enough.
 
Bottom line,

Luther says the burning of heretics goes against the will of the Holy Spirit.

The Church states the the burning of heritics does not go against the will of the H.S.

So whatever if people want to believe that the devil and all of his angels will not be thrown into the eternal fires of hell there is nothing I or the Church can do. Believe Luther and reject what we are taught by the word of God.

To turn this around to say the Church agrees with what happened all those years ago is unreal.

Just another way Luther with his tricks and liies tried to turn people away from the RCC.

But getting back to my thread, it is the RCC that will stand up against anyone who teaches another gospel. As seen here portrayed by Luther himself.🤷

I follow the RCC and the teachings of Christ. Not the teachings of Luther. And as the scripture defends and the Church defends that was a teahing of Luther not Christ.
 
is it not ironic how not one person besides those belonging to the RCC stood up here and said my Church does indeed have the Power of the Holy Spirit to interpret Scripture.

And show exactly how it did, why it did, and scriptual proof or Tradition.

All that I have heard is truly from Lutherans who pretty mich just said they don’t agree with how the scripture is interpretated, but in the defense of the RCC they are going by the interpretations of Luther. He is their source. Our is Jesus Christ.

But at least they say they have the same teachings to a point.

The RCC has the Pope the Vicar of Christ who claims the power, and also exercised it ironically by excommunicating Luther from the RCC.

Now if the Pope did not have the Power Luther should have tried to excommunicate the Pope. But as history shows Luther had no power over the Church started by Jesus Christ.

But in all fairness to Luther although he felt he had the power to interpret scriptue I do believe it was a self proclaimed power. I do not see him saying he is speaking in the voice of God and has power to do so. Because if this were the case the gates of hades would have prevailed and the devil would have taken over the RCC.

But please don’'t misinterpret me saying Luther was the devil. This I am not saying. I am saying even Luther could not over thrown the power of the Pope.

He tried his best but failed, The RCC is still here and the Pope is still the Vicar or Christ.
 
Typical poco. Jump to something else to throw mud when cornered…
That is the question.
You said something about me being lame or blasphemous, self-centered and arrogant but you posed no question in your 2 posts to me, did you ? I put 7 questions yo you with no answers so I don’t know if it is worth asking you , how did I throw mud ( and you didnt?) ? You are up to 9 questions.

So the same God will whisper something different from His Church in your ear?
Ahh, your first question for me. Thank you. And actually the sentence is not easy to understand the way you worded it . But I think you worded it differently in next post so I’ll try there.
 
I was also thinking this. Didn’t Pilate wash his hands in a way to get rid of guilt when turning over Jesus? How is this any different than the Church turning over heretics to be burned?
Not much I guess. Of course Pilate was still wrong (morally but not technically) even with a right pronouncement (I find no fault with Him). Both the Jews and Pilate did what was expedient for themselves. Both had no faith to deal righteously, (Godly), in the matter. That is the nature of sin, missing the mark,the Godly mark/bullseye.
 
I’m not talking about previous posts in plural but about claiming to have a better understanding of Scriptures than the Church, or anyone else on the planet for that matter.
Where did I say I have better understanding of Holy Writ than Church, not to mention your hyperbole ? Source please ?
 
You said something about me being lame or blasphemous, self-centered and arrogant but you posed no question in your 2 posts to me, did you ? I put 7 questions yo you with no answers so I don’t know if it is worth asking you , how did I throw mud ( and you didnt?) ? You are up to 9 questions.

Ahh, your first question for me. Thank you. And actually the sentence is not easy to understand the way you worded it . But I think you worded it differently in next post so I’ll try there.
Wishful thinking, poco. You do not get to change the rules of exchange.

You are still pending the source for this claim in post #755.

Which adrift is calling you out in post #764, in your link failing to satisfy your claim.

Then after that, you answered to PR that God Himself not only whispers in your ear but that He personally gave you the interpretation to 1 Peter 3:21 back in post #795.

So you have some housekeeping to do in answering these 2 questions that were posted way before your questions answering questions.
  1. What is you source that Constantine ordered Eusebius to make 50 Bibles ~325AD?
  2. How is God giving you an interpretation that goes against 2,000 years of teaching by the Church? Which by the way is the Pillar and Bulwark of Truth (1 Tim 3:15)?
So when Christ said that we must be born again of water and spirit, He didn’t really mean that?

Once you take care of these items we can move forward.
 
I mean, that is the reason behind each new denomination. Is it not?
That is the question.
That I said the Holy Spirit bequeaths scriptural understanding, and that He does it to individuals, even me, is the reason we have 30,000 no 40,000, aw heck, a million denominations ? No is the answer to your rhetorical question. If we did away with divine revelation to the individuals how would we know which church is right, that Christ is indeed the Messiah, Son of the Living God ?
Please stay on it and avoid changing it, over and over again
Only PR has earned the right to humorously call me out on being the King of non-sequitors. But again as with you we gotta try something else for I don’t see a source where I non-sequitored you.
 
Wow.
In all my years of discourse with Christians, I have never heard anyone else claim that God whispers in his ear the interpretations that are correct for Bible verses.
Oh sure you have, for there is nothing new under the sun. You did read my post that it is a spiritual "ear’, though God has spoken literally to some ?
So are we to understand that when your profession of God’s “whispers” in your ear are in contradiction to the Church’s, that yours is the infallible and correct profession?
For sure correct sometimes, but infallible is a term better left to …God, I think. For sure as in having assurance is a more biblical reply.
 
But if something came BEFORE [A], then it cannot be said to have come FROM [A], correct?
No, but anytime after ** is what we now follow, for it tells us of [A].
So it’s utterly nonsensical for you claim that bishops came as a result of the New Testament writings, when they existed BEFORE a single word of the NT was ever put to writ
So how do you know they existed before Writ ? I know cause Writ says so, to us and our forefathers(except the obvious writers of Holy Wrtit). It might be non-sensical to think that Writ is less effectual because those who wrote it didn’t live under it.**
 
That I said the Holy Spirit bequeaths scriptural understanding, and that He does it to individuals, even me, is the reason we have 30,000 no 40,000, aw heck, a million denominations ? No is the answer to your rhetorical question. If we did away with divine revelation to the individuals how would we know which church is right, that Christ is indeed the Messiah, Son of the Living God ? Only PR has earned the right to humorously call me out on being the King of non-sequitors. But again as with you we gotta try something else for I don’t see a source where I non-sequitored you.
Don’t avoid these questions: #825
 
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