Question for Christians and Jews

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The below question was asked on another thread by hamba2han. As it is no were near being germane to that thread I am posting it here for hamba2hans benefit.

Question for Christians and Jews:

Why doesn’t the words ‘Judaism’ or ‘Christianity’ appear even once in the Bible?
 
And what, hamba2han, does this prove? That mankind assigns words to concepts for clarities sake? Besides, those are both English words and neither the Bible or Torah were originally written in English you know.

Perhaps this proves that the Quran was written by a man or men to appear to be the definitive word of God so people would dare not question it for fear of death? Actions speak louder than words right?

Can anyone even take this question seriously?
 
George_Waters said:
Can anyone even take this question seriously?
Click to expand...
from a Christian or Jew no. Muslims, however, are attached to words. They need to see the word, otherwise, it has nothing to do with God. If God did not say “x”, then it must be wrong. Dunno where they get their reasoning from, but it is something you get used to after discussing with them.

Anyway, Christianity is not found in the gospels. However, Christians is found. Christianity is a derivation from Christians, duh.
 
And because the way Muslims think can be easily expected, you’ll get this argument : there is the word Islam in the Quran, why not Christianity in the Bible? as if this is a proof of divinity or as if God has a religion,or chooses religions, like humans, but anyway:

For whoever gives you a cup of water to drink because of your name as followers of Christ, truly I say to you, he will not lose his reward."

and when he found him, he brought him to Antioch. So for a whole year Barnabas and Saul met with the church and taught great numbers of people. **The disciples were called Christians first at Antioch." **

Ok i feel at peace now. The title IS in the Bible. If it weren’t, it must be wrong, even if it derives from Jesus, the CHRIST.
 
George_Waters said:
The below question was asked on another thread by hamba2han. As it is no were near being germane to that thread I am posting it here for hamba2hans benefit.

Question for Christians and Jews:

Why doesn’t the words ‘Judaism’ or ‘Christianity’ appear even once in the Bible?
Click to expand...
Sorry! The word bible doesn’t occur in the KJV. You may wish to check Secondary Results on the tab above to expand the breadth of your search

Sorry! The word Islam doesn’t occur in the KJV. You may wish to check Secondary Results on the tab above to expand the breadth of your search.
Blue Letter Bible

Acts Of Apostles 11 26 And they conversed there in the church a whole year; and they taught a great multitude, so that at Antioch the disciples were first named Christians.

Romans 1 16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel. For it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth, to the Jew first, and to the Greek.
 
George_Waters said:
The below question was asked on another thread by hamba2han. As it is no were near being germane to that thread I am posting it here for hamba2hans benefit.

Question for Christians and Jews:

Why doesn’t the words ‘Judaism’ or ‘Christianity’ appear even once in the Bible?
Click to expand...
Why doesn’t the word Islam appear in the BIble? Or "Dunkin’ Donuts’?
 
inJESUS said:
Muslims, however, are attached to **words. **They need to see the word, otherwise, it has nothing to do with God…
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Its too bad they cant see The Word then they could become attatched to Him.

:tiphat: ta da

couldnt resist 😃
 
The word ‘Qur’an’ appears in the Qur’an but the word ‘Bible’ does not appear in the Bible.

Both the words ‘Islam’ and ‘Muslim’ also appear in the Qur’an.

And lo and behold, the word ‘Muslim’ appears in the Bible!

Luke 6:40
The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

The perfection here means a spiritual one. What the verse is saying is that knowledge is not what matters! The teacher or master is higher in knowledge than his student. But the student can be as high as his teacher, or even higher, by being a true ‘MUSHLAM’ or Muslim, a spiritually perfect and well-disciplined person!

Let us look at what Jesus said in Luke 6:40 in the language of Aramaic translated into Hebrew as shown below:



“Ein talmeed na’leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she’MUSHLAM yihyeh k’rabbo.”

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Taken from the Aramaic bible society.

The verse is crystal clear in Aramaic!! The most accurate and honest translation for the Aramaic ‘Mushlam’ is none other than the Arabic ‘Muslim’, which means Believer!

And so then, not only does the word ‘Muslim’ appear in the Bible, it was used by Jesus (pbuh) to describe himself!! 🙂
 
hamba2han said:
The word ‘Qur’an’ appears in the Qur’an but the word ‘Bible’ does not appear in the Bible.

Both the words ‘Islam’ and ‘Muslim’ also appear in the Qur’an.

And lo and behold, the word ‘Muslim’ appears in the Bible!

Luke 6:40
The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

The perfection here means a spiritual one. What the verse is saying is that knowledge is not what matters! The teacher or master is higher in knowledge than his student. But the student can be as high as his teacher, or even higher, by being a true ‘MUSHLAM’ or Muslim, a spiritually perfect and well-disciplined person!

Let us look at what Jesus said in Luke 6:40 in the language of Aramaic translated into Hebrew as shown below:

http://www.answering-christianity.com/hebrew_2.gif

“Ein talmeed na’leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she’MUSHLAM yihyeh k’rabbo.”

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Taken from the Aramaic bible society.

The verse is crystal clear in Aramaic!! The most accurate and honest translation for the Aramaic ‘Mushlam’ is none other than the Arabic ‘Muslim’, which means Believer!

And so then, not only does the word ‘Muslim’ appear in the Bible, it was used by Jesus (pbuh) to describe himself!! 🙂
Click to expand...
Interesting, but in the bible – that doesn’t appear.

Matth 10:24 The disciple is not above his master, nor the servant above his lord.
Matth 10:25 It is enough for the disciple that he be as his master, and the servant as his lord. If they have called the master of the house Beelzebub, how much more shall they call them of his household?

ουκ εστιν μαθητης υπερ τον διδασκαλον ουδε δουλος υπερ τον κυριον αυτου

The word Muslim is nowhere here, or anywhere else in the bible.

The word bible ( βιβλος ) DOES appear in the bible.
Genesis 2:4
αυτη η βιβλος γενεσεως ουρανου και γης οτε εγενετο η ημερα εποιησεν ο θεος τον ουρανον και την γην

Genesis 5:1
αυτη η βιβλος γενεσεως ανθρωπων η ημερα εποιησεν ο θεος τον αδαμ κατ’ εικονα θεου εποιησεν αυτον

(and many more times…)

Matth 1:1 βιβλος γενεσεως ιησου χριστου υιου δαυιδ υιου αβρααμ
…

So?

Christian is translated Annointed in English, but that appears in
Greek as well and is also in the bible. Christ himself is the
ultimate Christian, but every Hebrew priest and prophet was
also a “Christian”, hence that name was not used in the early
years since it could be confused with the old covenant.
It wasn’t until Jesus primacy of being “THE Annointed” was
firmly established that people became “Christians” of Jesus the
Christ.

The original name of christians was not based on the annointing,
but following “The way”.
Luke 3:4, Luke 20:21, Luke 24:35, John 14:5, and especially:
John 14:16 – Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life.
Acts 16:17, 18:25, 18:26, 24:14
 
hamba2han said:
The word ‘Qur’an’ appears in the Qur’an but the word ‘Bible’ does not appear in the Bible.

Both the words ‘Islam’ and ‘Muslim’ also appear in the Qur’an.

And lo and behold, the word ‘Muslim’ appears in the Bible!

And so then, not only does the word ‘Muslim’ appear in the Bible, it was used by Jesus (pbuh) to describe himself!! 🙂
Click to expand...
oh my didn’t i “prophecize” this 😉
 
Really these kinds of arguments show how eager Muslims are to find their religion in a corrupt book written by unknown authors 😉

Muslim does not mean believer. It means who submit to Allah.In Luke 6:40 Jesus did not use a proper noun meaning “those who submit.” He used the participle katertismenos, which means "being made ready, prepared, or trained.

What’s next? Jesus killing people and taking women as sexual war toys? or maybe he married his adopted wife’s son? astaghfirullah. Or maybe Jesus going round the kaaba to stone the devil…or maybe Jesus fasting on ramadan and reciting the Quran lol. Is it possible you dont find all this in the Bible? try to pick and twist other words and am sure you’ll get this conclusion.
 
hamba2han said:
The word ‘Qur’an’ appears in the Qur’an but the word ‘Bible’ does not appear in the Bible.

Both the words ‘Islam’ and ‘Muslim’ also appear in the Qur’an.

And lo and behold, the word ‘Muslim’ appears in the Bible!

Luke 6:40
The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

The perfection here means a spiritual one. What the verse is saying is that knowledge is not what matters! The teacher or master is higher in knowledge than his student. But the student can be as high as his teacher, or even higher, by being a true ‘MUSHLAM’ or Muslim, a spiritually perfect and well-disciplined person!

Let us look at what Jesus said in Luke 6:40 in the language of Aramaic translated into Hebrew as shown below:

http://www.answering-christianity.com/hebrew_2.gif

“Ein talmeed na’leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she’MUSHLAM yihyeh k’rabbo.”

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Taken from the Aramaic bible society.

The verse is crystal clear in Aramaic!! The most accurate and honest translation for the Aramaic ‘Mushlam’ is none other than the Arabic ‘Muslim’, which means Believer!

And so then, not only does the word ‘Muslim’ appear in the Bible, it was used by Jesus (pbuh) to describe himself!! 🙂
Click to expand...
This has given me a good laugh for the day!
 
hamba2han said:
This PDF file offers a more complete explanation.
Click to expand...
Which manuscript of Luke does the author of this article use?

And is there a Christian Bible that translates the passage “correctly” according to your source? If not, are you prepared to accuse every translator of the Bible in Christian history of negligence or deception?
 
There is a Biblical verse which prophecies the coming of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and generally explains why Muslims have absolutely no doubts about the authenticity and veracity of the Qur’an.

"And this [is] the blessing, wherewith Moses the man of God blessed the children of Israel before his death. And he said, The LORD came from Sinai, and rose up from Seir unto them; he shined forth from mount Paran, and he came with ten thousands of saints: from his right hand [went] a fiery law for them."… Deuteronomy 33:1

Muslims have no problem at all accepting that this is indeed a prophecy in the Bible which has been fulfilled.

Christians and Jews however refuse to believe that it is even a prophecy.

No matter, the point is that it is not just the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) who is responsible for the rise of Islam and the preservation of the Qur’an in it’s original form.

With the help of Allah, it was also the efforts of these “ten thousands of saints” during and shortly after the time of the Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) that has enabled the Qur’an and also his Sunnah to be preserved so precisely and meticulously that has ensured that the Message of Islam will never be corrupted or lost till the Last Day when the world finally comes to an end.
 
hamba2han said:
There is a Biblical verse which prophecies the coming of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) and generally explains why Muslims have absolutely no doubts about the authenticity and veracity of the Qur’an.
Click to expand...
So Moslems believe the Koran, because of the Bible?
 
Montalban said:
So Moslems believe the Koran, because of the Bible?
Click to expand...
Muslims believe the Qur’an because it is the timeless miracle which is the ultimate proof of the Prophet-hood of Muhammad (pbuh).

Muslims accept only the parts of the Bible and other scriptures which conforms to the Qur’an.
 
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