Question For Jews: The Garments of The High Priest

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Chris_LaRock

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G-d makes the following statements about the High Priest and his Priestly garments:

Lev 10:6 And Moses said unto Aaron, and unto Eleazar and unto Ithamar, his sons, Uncover not your heads, neither rend your clothes; lest ye die, and lest wrath come upon all the people: but let your brethren, the whole house of Israel, bewail the burning which the LORD hath kindled.

Lev 21:10 And he that is the high priest among his brethren, upon whose head the anointing oil was poured, and that is consecrated to put on the garments, shall not uncover his head, nor rend his clothes;

The High Priest who condemned Jesus tore his robes when Jesus stated he was the messiah:

Mat 26:64 Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
Mat 26:65 Then the high priest rent his clothes, saying, He hath spoken blasphemy; what further need have we of witnesses? behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy.

I often use these references to prove that Jesus wasn’t killed by the Jews, as antisemites claim, but that he was killed by apostate Jews. No real Torrah-following Jewish High Priest would rend his clothes in direct violation of the laws of Moses.

But a friend of mine who has a Jewish friend from college tells me there is an instance in which the High Priest is allowed to rend his clothes: when someone has committed blasphemy in their presence.

Is this true?
 
I am not aware of any exceptions that would permit a high priest to tear his clothes. But I could be wrong. It is also unlikely that people would spit on Jesus during a trial before the Sanhedrin, for what its worth.
 
You know, there have been times when I read that passage to mean that he rent Jesus’s cloths.

Then, everyone else takes it to mean that he rent his own cloths…
 
Thanks for the link. So according to the Jewish encyclopedia, he could tear his clothes from the bottom, by the feet. But even then, only in mourning for a spouse, child or sibling.
 
The fact that the High Priest assembled false witnesses to testify against Jesus also proves that it was apostate Jews who killed him, and that REAL Jews are innocent of his blood.
 
Chris_LaRock said:
The fact that the High Priest assembled false witnesses to testify against Jesus also proves that it was apostate Jews who killed him, and that REAL Jews are innocent of his blood.
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You can add that this meeting where Jesus “testified” was against the rules and at least two members were not notified about it (Joseph and Nicodemus).
 
ralphinal said:
You can add that this meeting where Jesus “testified” was against the rules and at least two members were not notified about it (Joseph and Nicodemus).
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True!

Also, anti-semites have no way of explaining why Jews are given more regard than gentiles in the early days of Christianity. The Jews were in union with God and had his laws, while the gentiles didn’t. Because of this, God holds the Jews to a higher standard in many NT passages.

Jesus instructed his Apostles not to preach to the gentiles in the early days. (preaching to the gentiles started later, when the time was deemed right)

Jesus told the woman at the well, “Salvation is of the Jews.”

Jesus told a gentile woman who went to him to be healed, “It isn’t right to give the children’s food to the dogs”, but healed her when she replied, “But don’t the dogs get to eat the scraps that fall from the master’s table?”
 
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