Question for Jews

[meltzerboy]

From this post it seems if I understand correctly that overtime there was restrictions placed on these laws that made it unlikely that the harshest penalty was applied? This leads to a question on the morality of the situation, I realize the Jewish faith is not interpreted in one manner solely, but they all take from the same laws correct? So even with these restrictions, isn’t that not still supporting using harsh sometimes fatal consequences on problems that nowadays people consider solvable with just a slap on the wrist?

I think the “restrictions” are really further interpretations of the Law, which, in itself, does not always spell out all the complexities it contains. As stated, for example, if one does not even realize one is stealing, can or should the act be regarded as stealing? The understanding and intention of the individual are important here. While there are non-intentional sinful behaviors in Judaism, are such behaviors deserving of equal punishment compared to intentional ones? In addition, sometimes the inherent nature of the sinful act must also be taken into account, as Catholicism points out. And if the individual does understand that the behavior is wrong, we must then be certain that this particular individual is indeed the one who committed the behavior. That would require witnesses and evidence. And so on.