Depends on what you mean by that. If you mean…that she was pregnant with a human baby like every other female, then yes. In fact, all those quotes by our leaders that others use to ‘prove’ that we believe that God had sex with Mary are actually about the idea that Mary WAS a human woman, that God the Father was Jesus’ physical father, as well as His Immortal Father…that the Holy Ghost was not.
In other words, that (for lack of a better term) the DNA contributed to the mix was that of God, for a fully human child. Consider: His conception was a miracle: what would be miraculous about getting pregnant after sex, no matter with Whom?
The Book of Mormon specifically states that Mary was a virgin at Jesus’ birth…“virgin” in the English language definition of the word; that is, hymen intact, never having had sex with anybody…or Anybody.
So your question above is a beautiful example of the problem we have…

The idea is, Mary was very much naturally pregnant with the Only Begotten Son of God; physically pregnant with a very human baby; all the laws of nature applied…the miracle was in the method of conception.
Back when most of these statements were made, there was a lot of mystical argument about Mary’s pregnancy and the birth of her Child. I have only recently come to understand one of them…something about Mary not actually having to go through labor, but having the Child somehow appear in her arms when the time came. (Personally, and understandably…I have five kids and BOY, do I understand…I figure that’s wishful thinking)
ANYway, LDS leaders wanted to bring the topic back to reality, and to emphasize that God the Father was the Father of Jesus in all ways; the Holy Ghost was not. That He managed to get Mary pregnant without having sex with her…we understand that. Why does everybody else assume that He could not have done so?
Shoot, WE can…and it turns out, by the way, that we’ve been able to do it since the middle ages.