Question on 1 John 5:16

[Lazerlike42]

I am pretty sure about this, but I just want to be sure so I don’t cause trouble.

Someone is arguing that 1 John 5:16 does not refer to mortal sin but the sin against the Holy Spirit and they do so by saying that it says “there is a sin which leads to death,” and that the “a” makes it one, singular sin, not a class of sin. Am I correct in saying that koyne Greek did not have a word for “a,” so this is simply a Protestant translation?

 

[jimmy]

Lazerlike42:

I am pretty sure about this, but I just want to be sure so I don’t cause trouble.

Someone is arguing that 1 John 5:16 does not refer to mortal sin but the sin against the Holy Spirit and they do so by saying that it says “there is a sin which leads to death,” and that the “a” makes it one, singular sin, not a class of sin. Am I correct in saying that koyne Greek did not have a word for “a,” so this is simply a Protestant translation?

A class of sins is in the singular often in Greek and in Latin. If I refer to sin in a general sense it is singular.

 

[rciadan]

The Douay-Rheims (Challoner) Bible has a detailed footnote of this verse. If you don’t have a DR, you can go to www.drbo.org and view it online. Surprisingly, it seems to agree with the view that it is not referring to mortal and venial sins!

 

[Lazerlike42]

Can anybody look at the greek, and also the vulgate (I want to know what Jerome did with it), and see what it says? I don’t understand greek or latin well.

 

[mtr01]

Lazerlike42:

Can anybody look at the greek, and also the vulgate (I want to know what Jerome did with it), and see what it says? I don’t understand greek or latin well.

Here is the verse from the Clementine Vulgate:
1 John 5:16:

Qui scit fratrem suum peccáre peccátum non ad mortem, petat, et dábitur ei vita peccánti non ad mortem. Est peccátum ad mortem : non pro illo dico ut roget quis.

And here it is in the Greek:
1 John 5:16:

εαν τις ιδη τον αδελφον αυτου αμαρτανοντα αμαρτιαν μη προς θανατον αιτησει και δωσει αυτω ζωην τοις αμαρτανουσιν μη προς θανατον εστιν αμαρτια προς θανατον ου περι εκεινης λεγω ινα ερωτηση

 

[Lazerlike42]

I have the greek and latin, I just can’t read it.

 

[banjo]

Lazerlike42:

I am pretty sure about this, but I just want to be sure so I don’t cause trouble.

Someone is arguing that 1 John 5:16 does not refer to mortal sin but the sin against the Holy Spirit and they do so by saying that it says “there is a sin which leads to death,” and that the “a” makes it one, singular sin, not a class of sin. Am I correct in saying that koyne Greek did not have a word for “a,” so this is simply a Protestant translation?

“There is no indefinite article in Greek, and so adelfoV means either *brother *or a brother (usually the latter).” New Testament Greek for Beginners Machen; Prentice Hall

Two other points. The Nestle-Aland Greek-English New Testament has the phrase “mortal sin” in 1 Jn 5:16 as does the RSV hti.umich.edu/cgi/r/rsv/rsv-idx?type=simple&format=Long&q1=mortal+sin&restrict=All&size=First+100

Also, Isaiah 1:18 indicates differentiation in gravity of sin…“Though your sins be like scarlet, they may become white as snow; though they be crimson red, they may become white as wool.” A New Catholic Commentary on Holy Scripture notes this regarding Isaiah; “The two comparisons (‘like scarlet…crimson’) in 18 are to be connected with the hands red with blood of v.15. If repentence is sincere …] even the most serious sins will disappear and will be forgiven in God.”