Question on an article I read

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I read an article about the Assumption of Mary in which the author stated that two translation errors in Scripture have caused a lot of misunderstanding about Mary. I cannot quote the article since it is not in English, but I will post these two points here. I hope you can explain where the author is right/wrong.

The first error, according to the author, is in Luke 1:28, where Mary is called ‘kecharitomene’. The author states that the Latin translation ‘gratia plena’ is not accurate, so that there is no longer a distinction between ‘full of grace’ (as Jesus is called in John 1:14) and ‘filled with grace’ as it should be translated into. Thus by calling Mary ‘full of grace’ instead of ‘filled with grace’, catholics do not make the right distinction between Jesus and Mary.

Is gratia plena an unaccurate translation of kecharitomene? Does kecharitomene really mean ‘filled with’ instead of ‘full of’, and does this have theological implications?

The second error is made in Genesis 3:15: “I shall put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; it will bruise your head and you will strike its heel.”
The author says that Jerome in his Vulgate wrongfully translated “she will bruise your head”, which lead to a reading of Marial prophecy into the text by Catholic theologians. The image of Mary in which She stands with her foot on the snake’s head is thus caused by a translation error.

Is this true? Does the text says it or she (or even he, as some translations have) and what implications does it have for the Catholic understanding of this verse?
 
I read an article about the Assumption of Mary in which the author stated that two translation errors in Scripture have caused a lot of misunderstanding about Mary. I cannot quote the article since it is not in English, but I will post these two points here. I hope you can explain where the author is right/wrong.

The first error, according to the author, is in Luke 1:28, where Mary is called ‘kecharitomene’. The author states that the Latin translation ‘gratia plena’ is not accurate, so that there is no longer a distinction between ‘full of grace’ (as Jesus is called in John 1:14) and ‘filled with grace’ as it should be translated into. Thus by calling Mary ‘full of grace’ instead of ‘filled with grace’, catholics do not make the right distinction between Jesus and Mary.

Is gratia plena an unaccurate translation of kecharitomene? Does kecharitomene really mean ‘filled with’ instead of ‘full of’, and does this have theological implications?

The second error is made in Genesis 3:15: “I shall put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; it will bruise your head and you will strike its heel.”
The author says that Jerome in his Vulgate wrongfully translated “she will bruise your head”, which lead to a reading of Marial prophecy into the text by Catholic theologians. The image of Mary in which She stands with her foot on the snake’s head is thus caused by a translation error.

Is this true? Does the text says it or she (or even he, as some translations have) and what implications does it have for the Catholic understanding of this verse?
The word κεχαριτωμενη is the perfect passive participle of the verb χαριτοω and means full of χαρις (grace) and it has got the meaning that something past goes up to the present. So, when the Angel saluted the Sinless Blessed Mary, He told Her She was and is (then) Full of Grace, not “filled now” as your article says. See the whole discussion here: philvaz.com/apologetics/a116.htm

For further deepening of the subject we would have to go to Ελληνιστική Κοινή, Elinistiké Koini, the Greek Language used in the Diaspora like the lingua franca (ἡ κοινὴ διάλεκτος, i koini dialektos) of English is today.

Funny as the Google translation translates κεχαριτωμενη as “full of grace”. Try it! But this translation is not scientific at all.

I do not dwell on the other quotation, sorry, no time…

Believe the Old Catholic Church. No recent guy can destroy the solid foundations of Christ’s Church.
 
Thanks all (sorry for the late reply). I did some more reading and found out that
  1. even the Reformers translated to ‘full of grace’;
  2. Gen. 3:15 can be translated to both ‘he’ or ‘she’ (or even ‘they’) and the Church Fathers wrote that both are theologically correct since both Jesus and Mary played a role in crushing the serpent’s head, as read in Revelations 12.
Any more useful information?
 
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