Question on Bible Alone

  • Thread starter Thread starter mario_p
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Yeah… OT does not conflict NT and Jesus fulfilled OT law and also changed or added a bit. That is not matter. The problem is that there is no any relation between doctrines and scripture.
Again that’s not the case. There is a very definite and strong connection between doctrines and Scripture. However, doctrines are not based on Scripture but rather doctrines are supported by Scripture, as they are in the whole of Sacred Tradition.

It is the Magisterium that defines doctrine, for which they employ Scripture, the oral teachings of the Apostles, the writings of the Early Church Fathers, and the (name removed by moderator)ut of theologians.

Scripture, being merely the written accounts of prophets and Apostles as God inspired them to write, do not tell us what doctrine is, but they do tell us the thinking of the inspired writers of Scripture and what God inspired them to write.

Scripture was never meant to be the definer of doctrines, but rather a major source for determining doctrine because authority to define doesn’t lie in documents, but in those appointed by God to define doctrine–the Apostles and their successors.
 
Jesus allowed wine and said new things about sabbath.

22 And no man putteth new wine into old bottles: else the new wine doth burst the bottles, and the wine is spilled, and the bottles will be marred: but new wine must be put into new bottles.

23 And it came to pass, that he went through the corn fields on the sabbath day; and his disciples began, as they went, to pluck the ears of corn.

24 And the Pharisees said unto him, Behold, why do they on the sabbath day that which is not lawful?

25 And he said unto them, Have ye never read what David did, when he had need, and was an hungred, he, and they that were with him?

26 How he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and did eat the shewbread, which is not lawful to eat but for the priests, and gave also to them which were with him?

27 And he said unto them, The sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath:

28 Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath. Mark 2

And Jesus did not stone woman to death. etc.

And that is true that Jesus applied law of OT because Jews were not eager to obey laws and they made many troubles. But Jesus were given a great authority to make people more moral.

The problem is that doctrines are not in disciplines of Jesus.
Firstly, Jesus was not merely “given great authority”–he is the great authority because he is both God and man. As I explained in another post, Jesus fulfilled the Law of Moses. He could do this because he is the Word of God, co-eternal and co-equal with the Father and the Holy Spirit. If he were not, he would have been a liar or a charlatan, who we could not believe in or take his word for anything. He would have been a false prophet and not a man of God at all.

Doctrines are defined by the Apostles and their successors because Jesus founded his Church on the Apostles and gave them the authority to teach, preach, confect the Eucharist, forgive sins, heal people, baptize, etc. in his name. It’s just that simple. 🙂
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top