Question on Exodus 21

  • Thread starter Thread starter jesusmademe
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
J

jesusmademe

Guest
Exodus 21 speaks about the buying of a Hebrew servant. Why did the put that in the Bible? Why do we need to read about that?
 
Exodus 21 speaks about the buying of a Hebrew servant. Why did the put that in the Bible? Why do we need to read about that?
It is a continuation from Exodus 20:
22 And the Lord said to Moses: …
And continued until Exodus 24:
3 So Moses came and told the people all the words of the Lord, and all the judgments: and all the people answered with one voice: We will do all the words of the Lord, which he hath spoken.
 
That type of servitude and much worse was standard fare in the year 1500 BC. The laws concerning servitude in the Pentateuch basically sets minimum standards of how they are treated, setting limits on punishment, not allowing heads of households to keep them indefinitely as if they were property. It’s not so much positive affirmation as negatively setting restraints on excessive abuses, as it was understood at the time. And it should be kept in mind that at this stage of society, most of the law and consequences was handled at a household level. Certain things were seen as the head of household’s responsibility to manage, not the affair of civil authorities, which had a smaller scope. The state wasn’t built up enough to assume all of that, yet.
 
pe of servitude and much worse was standard fare in the year 1500 BC. The laws concerning servitude in the Pentateuch basically sets minimum standards of how they are treated, setting limits on punishment, not allowing heads of households to keep them indefinitely as if they were property. It’s not so much positive affirmation as negatively setting restraints on excessive abuses, as it was understood at the time. And it should be kept in mind that at this stage of society, most of the law and
Why do they mention laws like this in the Bible? It doesn’t make sense.
So there really should be no seperation between the laws in society and in the Church? Are the OT autohers tryng to say that? What do they want by putting these kinds of laws in the Bible?
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top