Question on omnibenevolence

[Pieman333272]

Does God’s omnibenevolence dictate that he must love all things equally? If so, then what’s the significance of unconditional love towards humans when he gives the same treatment to animals, plants, non-living objects, etc.?

 

[Windfish]

Is it even possible to love (agape) an inert object or non-rational entity? Remember, love is to will the good of the other as other. And the other is a person. Consider: if this were the case, wouldn’t God’s law include animals and plants?

 

[stephe1987]

Omnibenevolent = all good

Humans are made in God’s image. They have a soul that does not die (immortal soul) and also a will to act how they choose. Animal souls live as long as their bodies (mortal soul), and plants do not have souls at all.

 

[tonyrey]

Omnibenevolence does not entail equibenevolence!

In what way does God give the same unconditional love towards animals, plants and non-living objects as persons?

 

[AdriannaJean]

To love is to will the good of the other. God wills the good for dogs (which is to be a dog; virtue is most excellently fulfilling one’s form and function) just as He wills the good for humans (love, reason etc.). We can say safely that God wills the good of everything in the universe equally, but every different thing in the universe has its own highest good for God to will for it. It would be silly for God to will the same good for everything in the universe.