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runningdude
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It is the Church’s choice to do it this way.IF being married is not a detriment to the discharge of duties nor an impediment to ordination, why not let deacons be married again if their spouse dies?
It is the Church’s choice to do it this way.IF being married is not a detriment to the discharge of duties nor an impediment to ordination, why not let deacons be married again if their spouse dies?
1.of course, this injunction can just as easily be understood as an injunction against polygamy, since this was known among converts at the time.1 Timothy 3
[1] A faithful saying: if a man desire the office of a bishop, he desireth a good work. [2] It behoveth therefore a bishop to be blameless, the husband of one wife, sober, prudent, of good behaviour, chaste, given to hospitality, a teacher…
Also, consider that in the ancient diaconate one may be married at ordination. Ideally, continence is practiced so conjugal relations are abandoned at ordination.
It was decided by the Fathers early on in the Church. St. Paul also said that we should stay the way we are when we are called. The married stay married, the unmarried stay unmarried. So that just extends to those who become widowers that they remain as is.This is a tricky question to ask clearly. Let me be as precise as possible, and PLEASE read it carefully before offering your opinion. I’ve tried asking people this before and inevitably I get an answer to a different question. Thanks.
Since married men CAN be ordained to Holy Orders, why is it impossible for such a man to marry again after ordination if his wife pre-deceases him?
I know that it is not allowed. I’m not asking about that. I’m asking about the underlying reason. Specifically, I’m wondering what the difference between the pre-existing marriage that was done before ordination and one after ordination. There must be a difference, since one is allowed and one is not.
I’m not asking about why priests can’t be married, I understand what a vow of chastity made by an unmarried man means. I’m only asking about men who were already married when ordained, the specific reason they cannot marry again if their spouse dies.
Thanks very much for your replies.
=Burdensome1;10008446]This is a tricky question to ask clearly. Let me be as precise as possible, and PLEASE read it carefully before offering your opinion. I’ve tried asking people this before and inevitably I get an answer to a different question. Thanks.
Since married men CAN be ordained to Holy Orders, why is it impossible for such a man to marry again after ordination if his wife pre-deceases him?
I know that it is not allowed. I’m not asking about that. I’m asking about the underlying reason. Specifically, I’m wondering what the difference between the pre-existing marriage that was done before ordination and one after ordination. There must be a difference, since one is allowed and one is not.
I’m not asking about why priests can’t be married, I understand what a vow of chastity made by an unmarried man means. I’m only asking about men who were already married when ordained, the specific reason they cannot marry again if their spouse dies.
THE FIRST THING TO BE FULLY UNDERSTOOD IS THAT WE ARE DEALING HERE WITH “CHURCH PRACTICES”; NOT DOGMA OR DOCTRINE.Thanks very much for your replies.
I think pretty much everyone understands this.THE FIRST THING TO BE FULLY UNDERSTOOD IS THAT WE ARE DEALING HERE WITH “CHURCH PRACTICES”; NOT DOGMA OR DOCTRINE.
PRACTICES CAN BE CHANGED; BUT DOCTINE AND DOGMA CANNOT BE CHANGED.
I think the reason this particular discipline of the Church is so confusing to people is that it is discipline that is is apparently common to both Catholicism and Orthodoxy. I think most people assume that what is uniform between Catholicism and Orthodoxy is doctrinal.The cases of “married priest” in the Latin Rite nealrly alway’s stem form a married situtation that existed prior to Ordination to the RCC -priesthood, in every case I KNOW about. Normally there are from a Protestant [already married] situation; converting and doing what the Church claims is necessary to become a Catholic priest.
While “married priest” are still permitted in some of the Eastern Catholic Churc
hes; such are NOT permitted as “THE NORM” within the Latin rite-RCC.
It can be taken that way but has not been so taken in the Catholic commentary. For example in Haydock we have:1.of course, this injunction can just as easily be understood as an injunction against polygamy, since this was known among converts at the time.
2.if this is an injunction against a re-married man, then it becomes even more mysterious. A man need not be a virgin or even celibate, which there is established theology to investigate about, but just this mysterious prohibition against re-marriage.
3.BUT your final point I think is important, because it would be quite impossible to have a remarriage if it was unable to be consummated. That’s a pretty iron-clad to answer as
to the ancient practice.
So, again, the injunction against remarriage for the ordained is within the context of a continent clergy.It does not signify, that to be a bishop or priest he must be a married man; nor that he must be a man who has but one wife at a time; but that he must be a man who has never been married but once, or to one wife: because to be married more than once, was looked upon as a mark of too great an inclination to sensual pleasures. It is true, at that time a man might be chosen to be a bishop or priest whose wife was living, but from that time he was to live with her as with a sister
At one point in time, this was the case. It isn’t the case now: married men who are ordained Latin Rite priests (e.g., the exceptional cases) are not expected to be continent.So, again, the injunction against remarriage for the ordained is within the context of a continent clergy.
You might be surprised, but one of the discussions at Vatican II – in the context of the renewal of the permanent diaconate – was the debate over continence. In the end, nothing about it was written into the documents. So, your comment doesn’t really hold up here (even though it isn’t immediately obvious that this is the case, perhaps…).Sounds like maybe the one only makes sense with the other.
Do you have a page reference? (Yeah, I’m too lazy to search for it myself…I read the green commentary on the Code of Canon Law about it today. In 1981 the Code plenarium commission voted 38 to 13 to include in the Code specific permission to allow deacons to remarry. Didn’t make it into the 1983 code, though.
Actually, there is some dispute on the obligations of married clerics, whether deacons or priests, in this area:At one point in time, this was the case. It isn’t the case now: married men who are ordained Latin Rite priests (e.g., the exceptional cases) are not expected to be continent.
At the core, I think you’re right. I think if the Church formally abandons any requirement of continence for its clergy, it would not be inappropriate to end the proscription of marriage for clerics.So, again, the injunction against remarriage for the ordained is within the context of a continent clergy.
Sounds like maybe the one only makes sense with the other.
Only a controversy to Mr. Peters and a few. There was a letter recently from the Vatican putting this to rest for everyone but him. I’d have to do some searching to find it. Put simply if a cleric is married he cannot be celibate. If he is not celibate he is nit held to the requirement of perfect and perpetual contenance.Actually, there is some dispute on the obligations of married clerics, whether deacons or priests, in this area:
Summary of the clerical continence debate… by Edward J. Peters
At the core, I think you’re right. I think if the Church formally abandons any requirement of continence for its clergy, it would not be inappropriate to end the proscription of marriage for clerics.
Although there are also other reasons one can use to rationalize this rule, the chief one in my mind being that a cleric’s pastoral duties can more easily be compromised when spiritual comfort is mixed with romance. Even if we assume a cleric’s conduct is beyond reproach (which obviously will not always be true), the second-guessing by parishioners of the cleric’s motives can undermine his leadership and the respect due him.
True; but in ecclesiastical matters, it often depends on who’s saying it.“Only a controversy to Mr. Peters and a few.” I grant that we are few; the truth of a position does not depend on the number of people who agree with it.
Mr. Peters,“Only a controversy to Mr. Peters and a few.” I grant that we are few; the truth of a position does not depend on the number of people who agree with it.
“There was a letter recently from the Vatican putting this to rest for everyone but him.” It was not put to rest, and I am not the only one who says so.
“I’d have to do some searching to find it.” Allow me.
The (second) letter is here, frvanhove.wordpress.com/2012/09/18/letter-of-cardinal-francesco-palmerio-to-cardinal-timothy-dolan-on-the-subject-of-canon-277-%C2%A7-1/
and my reply is here, canonlaw.info/PDF-Coccopalmerio%202.pdf
Cordially, edp.
I’ve read much of your writings on this topic and I still don’t and cannot agree because of the practical application I have experienced in my own life; plus the documents which have come from the Magisterium.Hi Deacon. What brought me to this thread was the topic. I generally know when folks are publicly discussing Canon 277 etc and, time-permitting, I try to service that discussion.
One need not be a scholar to follow this matter (tho it helps), but one *does *need to read what’s out there in order to form grounded opinions on the matter. I disagree with little that you wrote, but you more than once slipped into making a *canonical *argument (unaware that you are doing so), which argument, in fact, is wrong. So, my notes above.
I do think if you read my main studies you would find my position–even if you disagree with it–much more balanced than some of those persuaded by it seem to paint it; but only if you read the articles with the same care with which I wrote them.
Best, edp.