Question on the Fall, Original Justice and Redemption

[Ignatius_ofNOLA]

Here’s something I’ve been wondering.

Before the Fall of man, while man was still in a state of original justice, man experienced no concupiscence and would not have experienced physical death. That all changes after the Fall. As a punishment for sin, man now experiences physical death as part of original sin.

So I’ve been wondering. Christ comes later in order to offer redemption to us who have inherited this original sin. Why doesn’t Christ also restore us to original justice, where we do not have concupiscence and where we do not experience physical death. I understand that he doesn’t. But it seems to me that He certainly could have. Why doesn’t he?

Thanks.

 

[DavidFilmer]

Before the Fall of man, while man was still in a state of original justice, man experienced no concupiscence and would not have experienced physical death. That all changes after the Fall.

I understand why certain protestants make this claim, based on their interpretation of Scripture. You identify yourself as a Catholic. The Catholic Church has never taught that Adam would have been immortal (in the physical, bodily sense) if he had resisted sin. Upon what Catholic teaching is your question founded?

 

[bzkoss236]

Here’s something I’ve been wondering.

Before the Fall of man, while man was still in a state of original justice, man experienced no concupiscence and would not have experienced physical death. That all changes after the Fall. As a punishment for sin, man now experiences physical death as part of original sin.

So I’ve been wondering. Christ comes later in order to offer redemption to us who have inherited this original sin. Why doesn’t Christ also restore us to original justice, where we do not have concupiscence and where we do not experience physical death. I understand that he doesn’t. But it seems to me that He certainly could have. Why doesn’t he?

Thanks.

What do you think heaven is?

All over the NT it says that we will have eternal life in heaven and be in union with God, is this not immortality and loss of concupiscence?

 

[Ignatius_ofNOLA]

I understand why certain protestants make this claim, based on their interpretation of Scripture. You identify yourself as a Catholic. The Catholic Church has never taught that Adam would have been immortal (in the physical, bodily sense) if he had resisted sin. Upon what Catholic teaching is your question founded?

The Ctaholic textbook my nephew has says that one of the results of the fall is that “life itself will end in suffering. Physical death is inevitable.” The textbook has the Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur

 

[Nita]

The Ctaholic textbook my nephew has says that one of the results of the fall is that “life itself will end in suffering. Physical death is inevitable.” The textbook has the Nihil Obstat and Imprimatur

Regarding physical death being inevitable, there are a few exceptions that may or may not exist. The first would be Mary who may or may not have experienced death; the second possible exception would be any humans alive at the time of Our Lord’s coming at the end of the world.

In regards to Adam, what I have read and been taught is that had he not sinned he would have been taken/translated to eternal glory in heaven without undergoing physical death.

 

[JerryZ]

Here’s something I’ve been wondering.

Before the Fall of man, while man was still in a state of original justice, man experienced no concupiscence and would not have experienced physical death. That all changes after the Fall. As a punishment for sin, man now experiences physical death as part of original sin.

So I’ve been wondering. Christ comes later in order to offer redemption to us who have inherited this original sin. Why doesn’t Christ also restore us to original justice, where we do not have concupiscence and where we do not experience physical death. I understand that he doesn’t. But it seems to me that He certainly could have. Why doesn’t he?

Thanks.

OK let me take a stab at it. So Adam and Eve sinned and all the consequences of this action befell to the human race. Now per our question He could have restored the human race to it’s original justice.
What would that entail?
Where was “the human race” prior to this event?
Ding ding… “the Garden of Eden” So in order to restore us to original justice He would have to bring us back to the Garden.
But wait Is all the human race redeemed?
Nail in the coffin of “Once Saved Always Saved” Nooooooo! we are not fully redeemed until we die and be judged then all is revealed and if we led a life ACCORDING to Jesus’s teachings we will be allowed to enter His pen, else? We will be sent to eternal doom
Jesus’s death is NOT a free ticket to Heaven we will NOT enter it only because we ACCEPTED Him in our hearts.
It requires an act of profound change on OUR part in order to be able to claim His free GIFT.
In order to accomplish what you asked God would have to turn the clock back to the beginning, what is the saying “once the cat is out of the bag”. The ball started rolling through our actions and only OUR actions will make it stop.
And where it eventually ends is entirely up to us.

Peace