Godlovesthespek; great “handle.”
I think when we speak to non-Catholics, we need to be careful of distributing even the accurate definition you gave over anything other than God only. It is fine, however to say that “I
believe XYZ to be “True” in
my understanding.” This is a simple semantic proposition.
I say this because otherwise you are asking for perhaps unnecessary arguements. That is because while the Church has its own unassailable
internal logic, a simple reading of history will immediatley bring challenges from non-believers. It is easy, say, given the nature of the Council of Jerusalem, to posit that the Church as we know it today is primarily a Paulist Church, the early Church being unmistakably founded in, and alligned in practice with, Judaism. I know Jesus did not say
how to spread His teachings, but there are a host of questions regarding scholarly veracity in this area that make the word “True” suspect in the eyes of non-Catholics.
As for the Bible, we know that we have none of the original documents, not even first copies. And all those are different from one another in some regard or other. Also, some of their contents may be traced to works that pre-date Jesus in some form or other. And the Bible with its present complement of books wasn’t assembled until the fourth century. Again, there is, from the non-Catholic view, material here to be concerned about in terms of scholastic, or even spiritual, accuracy.
Even today, as we gain greater understanding of language and translation,
,** we find that some interpretations are changing. For example, we know that in the time and place of Jesus the teaching language (parables) had at least three tiers of meaning, and therefore of interpretation. (See Mark 4:33-34)** Also, in Latin it says “Idem non idem.” They meant, I believe, that the “same” thing in one language is* not *the same in another. Yet we have Aramaic going into Greek and Latin during radically different cultures than our own, and then being translated into English–about whose verb “to be” Heinlein said “only the first person singular is true to fact.” There is also the factor of the about two thousand year time factor, not to mention that there is good reason to believe that authors of that time did not write expository prose in the same sense that we now understand it. Again, red flags for non-believers.
Further, the Catechism may in our eyes be “True,” but in fact it was developed over time and includes exegetical material that can easily be targeted as valid, but not necessarioly “True” in the sense you defined. And again, from a non-Catholic stance, ex-cathedra, etc, etc, are all dependent on the previous factors and are therfore subject to scholastic scrutiny, therefore not “True” in that sense through those eyes.
So I think it is wonderful that you have the strength of your faith. I’m just saying that if it is represented as a faith, however valid and “True” *to you *, claiming it as “Truth” without qualification may be asking for unnecessary arguments based on demonstrable doubt regarding changelessness. Of course, “Truth” still stands as applied to God, in any case. I’m just cautioning against putting forth even the strongest faith in the place of scholarly argument in a forum where it might draw unwarranted critique when put in such a way as your post.
*In this regard it is fascinating to read the Lamsa translation done recently by Dr. George Lamsa, a speker of Aramaic. See
www.lamsabible.com
**A funny story about this comes from a lady who was asked why, when it would serve her well in her situation, she didn’t learn a particular foreign language. She replied “God writ the Bible in English, and that makes it good enough for me.”
***A fine work on this account is Maurice Nicoll’s
The New Man: an interpretation fo sme of the parables and miracles of Christ.