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FCEGM
Guest
Matt, you keep insisting on a reading that if Mary was conceived with the indwelling of the Holy Spirit that she was necessarily, then, “born a Catholic.” That is an inaccurate understanding. She was, as was her Divine Son, born a Jew. Because of her Immaculate Conception was conceived with - and thus born with - all the graces that one who is baptized into Christ receives. She was “born a Catholic” as much as her Son was.It is de fide dogma that Mary was born free from the stain of original sin, just as Adam and Eve were created justified, sanctified and free from sin. If you want to believe that Mary was also born a Catholic with the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, I won’t say that the Church has said that you CAN’T believe that. Personally, I don’t believe that Mary was never a Jew - I believe that Mary was a Jew that “born again” to become the first Catholic. I understand that many theologians also believe that Mary was born a Catholic – but that is a matter of theological opinion, not Church dogma.
As John has already said, that is extremely speculative. Since our first parents had sanctifying grace (de fide) which signifies the indwelling of the Most Holy Trinity in the soul, Mary would have been born - as would have all of us - with sanctifying grace, whether or not the Son of God were to be Incarnated or not. If He was to become Incarnate, then all other graces that prescind from that because of her divine motherhood would likewise have been hers.Here is my question to you: If the Fall had never of occurred, would Mary have been born as a fully divinized child of God before the Word of God became incarnate?