Question

[Underwaterflick]

Can anyone please give me information regarding why we say “For Thine is the Kingdom” after the Our Father during mass?

Thank you.
I am sorry if i posted this in the wrong place, I am new at this.

God bless. Smile.

 

[Deacon_Ed]

The primary reason is that this is the traditional ending for the Lord’s Prayer. Although the embolism isn’t found in Scripture, this is a case where the ending was so traditional that the writers of the Gospel simply omitted what was “common knowledge.”

Deacon Ed

 

[Forest-Pine]

Funny thing: It is a seperate prayer that follows the Our Father, found in the Didache and some of the old liturgical books of Eastern rites, but not in Scripture. The Protestants (who are so strictly Bible-only) are saying a distinctly Catholic doxology when they pray it! Gives me a little chuckle.

Fr. William P. Saunders’ short article on the inclusion of “For thine is the kingdom…” at the end of the Our Father

A very interesting page about the history of the Lord’s Prayer following it through the different translations. (I’m not sure of accuracy, but a check against Fr’s article appears correct.)

 

[Underwaterflick]

Thank you very much for your information!