V
VeritasLuxMea
Guest
How is it believed that Mary conceived? Did a sperm from God fertilize one of her eggs? Did this fertilization occur with no penetration?
I was going to ask if God merely “implanted” Christ’s fetus into her, but on second thought, I don’t think that makes sense because Jesus was the flesh of Mary and presumably that means one of her eggs must have been fertilized. Otherwise Jesus would not be human.
Then again, is it possible God simply implanted a fetus with Mary’s DNA built in?
Further, does God have his own DNA? How could that be? Wouldn’t that be limiting to him, to confine him to DNA?
Overall, I’m confused because it sounds to me like Jesus would actually have to have 3 parts: male (human), female (human) and God.
We know where the God part comes in, we know where the female (human) part comes in, but where does the male (human) part come from? I am left to believe that it comes from God?
If there are not 3 parts of Jesus, and it is merely human (female) and God, then how could Jesus be said to be “100%” human? He would only be 50% human in that case.
A tangentially related question: why in the world would a Roman census require people to move back to the towns of their ancestors? Having studied ancient history, I can see no rhyme or reason to such an idea. It doesn’t appear to be beneficial to Rome in any conceivable way.
I was going to ask if God merely “implanted” Christ’s fetus into her, but on second thought, I don’t think that makes sense because Jesus was the flesh of Mary and presumably that means one of her eggs must have been fertilized. Otherwise Jesus would not be human.
Then again, is it possible God simply implanted a fetus with Mary’s DNA built in?
Further, does God have his own DNA? How could that be? Wouldn’t that be limiting to him, to confine him to DNA?
Overall, I’m confused because it sounds to me like Jesus would actually have to have 3 parts: male (human), female (human) and God.
We know where the God part comes in, we know where the female (human) part comes in, but where does the male (human) part come from? I am left to believe that it comes from God?
If there are not 3 parts of Jesus, and it is merely human (female) and God, then how could Jesus be said to be “100%” human? He would only be 50% human in that case.
A tangentially related question: why in the world would a Roman census require people to move back to the towns of their ancestors? Having studied ancient history, I can see no rhyme or reason to such an idea. It doesn’t appear to be beneficial to Rome in any conceivable way.