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I think that the nihil obstat means that a bishop of the Church affirms there is nothing in the document “objectionable on doctrinal or moral grounds.”the document has a NIHIL OBSTAT?
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I think that the nihil obstat means that a bishop of the Church affirms there is nothing in the document “objectionable on doctrinal or moral grounds.”the document has a NIHIL OBSTAT?
Bearing false witness is not “objectionable on moral grounds?”TOmNossor:
I think that the nihil obstat means that a bishop of the Church affirms there is nothing in the document “objectionable on doctrinal or moral grounds.”the document has a NIHIL OBSTAT?
I think Ostler’s experience teaching this at BYU has emboldened him, but I still doubt he would say this is “defining belief.” As I pointed to earlier in the thread:Mr. Ostler near the end of his article allows for the possibility of HF having experienced a mortal existence prior to regaining divinity, although it remains an “option of belief” rather than a “defining belief” for Latter-Day Saints. If HF went through an identical experience as the Son, the question naturally arises, who did HF answer to? That is, if HF experienced mortality. But then, one is left wondering.
Instead, Ostler’s work (not the Element article, but the Exploring Mormon Thought series is a systematic theology. Like things from Aquinas or more recent non-Catholic ones like Geisler or Grudem.The fundamental principles of our religion are the testimony of the Apostles and Prophets, concerning Jesus Christ, that He died, was buried, and rose again the third day, and ascended into heaven; and all other things which pertain to our religion are only appendages to it.”
Joseph Smith
That would not quite be what I am saying. I am saying that LDS “theology” over the last 190 years looks a lot like the first 190 years after Christ’s death.Yes, the missionaries we interacted with back then, really believed … although they were completely sincere, they nevertheless were in serious doctrinal error.
I very much disagree that there is a constancy that you are claiming. Catholic scholar John Henry Newman ceased to be an Anglican precisely because the constancy was ABSENT and instead embraced the AUTHORITY that DEVELOPED the modern Christian faith.But to me, an evangelical Protestant, and my Roman Catholic friends here, our concept of God has stayed the same for nearly two millennia. I think that I’ll stay with that.
I think Karl Keating told me I was long winded. He was/is right. I get it, no worries.Sorry to edit so much. I think of more stuff and CAF has a 3 post in a row limitation. So I edit.
The majority of the Fathers at Nicea believed and certified when they agreed to the creedal definition that, “God the Father and God the Son were homoousian/consubstantial JUST LIKE a human father and a human son were homoousian/consubstantial.”Still no reason to believe using a word differently means Nicaea was aiming to retain a measure of polytheism as orthodoxy.
I agree that SOME of the problems can be ameliorated by an appeal to the “difficulties with language.” Both before Nicea, between Nicea and Constantinople and following Constantinople. And truth be told with the regular expressions of modalism from Catholics here and elsewhere, PARTIALLY because of the English creedal statement that was only edited out a handful of years ago, such problems continue today.I’m sure your aware that at the Rome the difficulties with language brought about the following council at Constantinople.
To Catholics, a nut was cracked, so to speak, in how the Holy Faith could be expressed using metaphysics. We see God’s grace.
Mormons are always incredibly suspicious about grace being absent. I find that to be sad.
What necessitates the change is learning a better way to communicate the message he was given as he learned “line upon line, precept upon precept”. That’s what prophets do. Why did Jeremiah change scripture in Jeremiah 32:32? Then Jeremiah took another scroll and gave it to his scribe, Baruch, son of Neriah, who wrote on it at Jeremiah’s dictation all the words contained in the scroll which Jehoiakim, king of Judah, had burned in the fire, adding many words like them.Mother of God and Mother of the Son of God are used interchangeably by Catholics. There is no need to fix one by replacing it with the other. Therefore the question can he asked, in a Mormon context, what necessitates changing one to the other?”
Modalism is the belief that God appears as only one of the three divine persons at a time. There is no modalism per se solely in the symbolic equating of two divine beings. Christ is referred to as a “Father” here, because He is the Father of the salvation of the righteous. Mosiah 15:12 says those redeemed from transgression are Christ’s “seed”.The use of the adjective very, in the phrase “the very Eternal Father” indicates that the Son is exactly the same as the Father, which is modalism. It is indicating something literal, not symbolic.
“Everlasting Father” and “Eternal Father” are used interchangeably in English translations of Isaiah 9:6, including the “Good News Translation” which is a USCCB approved translation.The phrase, “the everlasting Father” is a Hebraism. Throughout the OT a person is called the father of something, which term means they are the owner of that something. Lest the promised child, who is called child and son, not be recognized as greater than both child and son, he is given the name Father of Eternity. Indicating he owns eternity, as he himself, is eternal.
Did you have to bring up the “abscession incident”? I had to look it up… again, because I forgot what I learned last time!! I do share quotes that I do understand of Justin and others.In another discussion regarding the one nature of God I quoted Justin Martyr to you, in context. As you recall Justin Martyr continues on where he compares Jesus to a flame that is from another flame, the distinction in personhood (numeric count of persons) not by abscession (one being). I recall your response was, you didn’t understand what Justin Martyr was saying. So now you quote Justin Martyr, using the same teaching of his that you said you didn’t understand, while pretending to know what he is teaching?
IMHO, the real issue here is that you are uncomfortable with highly regarded Catholic sources like Cardinal John Henry Newman and New Advent which acknowledge an unorthodox belief from Justin. Regarding Justin’s belief about Jesus, New Advent specifically states “His [Christ’s] Divinity, however, seems subordinate, as does the worship which is rendered to Him”.One would think that by now (after years misquoting Catholics) you would have figured out that Justin Martyr was martyred for his Catholic faith, not for being an early promoter of Joseph Smith’s heresies.
I do not think I have misunderstood this (Catholic belief), maybe ever, but certainly not here at Catholic Answers. I have seen Catholics misunderstand it, even asking, “we then are consubstantial with the Father and Spirit as well?” A VERY reasonable question, but alas the answer is no.You keep missing the point that there are two natures in the Person of Jesus Christ.
The CoJCoLDS does in fact believe that God the Father and God the Son and all of mankind are of the same substance. It is not the ουσία / substance that distinguishes between the divine and the non-divine for the LDS. The Bible NEVER uses ουσία / substance in the way it was used at Nicea and thus it is not Biblical to distinguish the divine from the non-divine using ουσία.Mormonism teaches one nature. Jesus in Mormonism is a son of an exalted human, but nonetheless a human. You can’t reconcile this with any ECF without claiming they are referencing a human nature that has progressed to a different nature and this is not what Mormonism teaches. Let alone the problem you never address, of no Catholic teaching anywhere at any time that the Father has a human nature.
This is not an uncommon statement, but I think it FAR more accurate to say that in the CoJCoLDS everyone has the same -ousia.In Mormonism everyone is of the same nature.
Jesus is the mediator between sinful, separated mankind and sinless, divinely communed God. He is the only one who could reconcile us to the Father AND communion with the Father / communion within the Social Trinity are integrally linked to “divinity as such” in LDS thought.For Catholics, Jesus is mediator in His Person, being fully human and fully divine, he is the only one who could reconcile us to the Father.
It means the article is consistent with Catholic moral teaching and the Catholic faith.What does it mean that Catholic Answers, the largest English speaking apologetic apostolate in the world, attacks my faith with mistakes (some more obvious than others). And that some Catholic Bishop certified such mistakes with a NIHIL OBSTAT?
Actually, Rebecca arrived and immediately acknowledge that the word Homoousian does in fact have meanings that have shifted over time. That was something that you and Hope refused to do.Wow.
Been gone a couple of days and the post continues. It seems like we’re still going in circles.
Rebecca,Suspicious meaning, you accept a book as scripture without a sideways glance but that idea God works with what he’s got, us, is not possible. God can work through fallible, humans, us, is suspect. You have to believe the Protestant tale, that Christ left His Church, and we now must figure out where he went to. Mormonism is no different in Protestants in this regard, claiming Jesus is “over here”. One has to wonder when he will leave next and where then will he go?
Or in other, other words, Mormons have a house built on sand, and are perpetually looking through the wrong end of the telescope while building endless conspiracy theories based on a warped view.
I am convinced I am following God, but I see no reason that I cannot tell Catholics how incredibly wonderful I consider the Catholic Church to be. I am not trying to deceive you, I really feel this way, I just feel I must walk towards the light I think shines brighter.I find problems with Catholic truth claims, but it is the inability to explain the Book of Mormon or the Restoration intellectually from a Catholic perspective that leaves me a LDS.
I have also acknowledged that the Real Presence is a beautiful doctrine that is well supported by John 6.I agree with history, which Mormons do not. You pick and choose. As an example, the Real Presence. Mormons ignore entirely, but will spend endless hours prooftexting Catholic history while ignoring the evidence that proves the Mormon religion is a late-comer invention. I imagine it takes a toll on one’s faculties.
I have yet to see a LDS General Authority claim that Heavenly Father ever sinned. If you can fine ONE, that would be more than I know at the moment.The Mormon Father is not sinless by nature, he is a man, who at one time sinned and learned over who knows how many eons to not sin.
You are mistaken. Jesus Christ was the God of the Old Testament prior to his earthly ministry. He was choosen in the beginning. As I said in my post, LDS must acknowledge that the Son was divine before incarnation and Holy Spirit is divine without incarnation but for future human divinity an incarnation is required. You are not properly representing the faith you reject.For Mormons Jesus is mediator because of obedience, not because of His divine nature.
It is the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints AND the Bible that never suggests -ousia has ANYTHING to do with divinity.The Mormon divine nature is a reward for forsaking sin, not an attribute of the divine. So you’re using divine to mean something human, then trying to claim that Mormon divine and human are different. It is the same nature, one having a refined quality.